EMPLOYEES STATE INSURANCE CORPORATION
(ESIC) 2008 SOLVED PAPER
(Held on 01-06-2008)
1. A prepaid service 'TRUMP' was launched by
(A) VSNL
(B) MTNL
(C) Bharati Cellular Ltd.
(D) None of these
ANS- B
2. Which of the following countries won highest gold medals in 27th Olympics ?
(A) Russia
(B) USA
(C) aUSTRALIA
(D) china
ANS- B
3. Which of the following languages belong to the Austric Group ?
(A) Marathi
(B) Laddakhi
(C) Khasi
(D) Tamil
ANS- C
4. Who did not oppose the attack of the USA and her allies on Iraq in March 2003 ?
(A) France
(B) India
(C) Turkey
(D) Pakistan
ANS- A
5. SMS is a service associated with :
(A) E-Mail
(B) Cellular Phones
(C) Internet Surfing
(D) Fax Transmission
ANS- B
6. What was the original Nationality of Annie Besant ?
(A) British
(B) Irish
(C) French
(D) American
ANS- B
7. Which foreign country is closest to Andman Island ?
(A) Sri Lanka
(B) Myanmar
(C) Indonesia
(D) Bangladesh
ANS- B
8. Which country is not a member of G-8 ?
(A) Italy
(B) Canada
(C) Germany
(D) Australia
ANS- D
9. The language spoken by the largest number of people in the world is :
(A) Spanish
(B) English
(C) French
(D) Mandaren
ANS- D
10. Wich of the following is not a Negotiable Instrument ?
(A) Cheque
(B) Promissory note
(C) Bill of exchange
(D) Receipt of fixed deposit
ANS- D
11. Which of the following is nat a part of the exportable item from India ?
(A) Tea
(B) Shoes
(C) Steel
(D) Milk
ANS- D
12. GATT was founded in the year :
(A) 1940
(B) 1942
(C) 1947
(D) 1960
ANS- C
13. Who among the following has not been awarded death sentence in the case of attack on the Indian Parliament ?
(A) Mohammed Afzal
(B) SAR Geelani
(C) Shaukat Hussain Guru
(D) Afshan Guru
ANS- D
14. Stock Market are regulated by :
(A) RBI
(B) SEBI
(C) The ministry of finance
(D) None of these
ANS- B
15. No smoking is a :
(A) Rule
(B) Procedure
(C) Plan
(D) Policy
ANS- A
16. In raw Jute and Jute goods production, India ranks at number :
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
ANS- A
17. National bird is observed on :
(A) October 12
(B) November 12
(C) December 13
(D) December 18
ANS- B
18. Famous Food and Drug store "JUSCO" belongs to :
(A) Britain
(B) Netherland
(C) Japan
(D) Switzerland
ANS- C
19. The words "Satyamave Jayate" are taken from :
(A) Gita
(B) Garur Puran
(C) Mundaka Upnishad
(D) Mahabharat
ANS- C
20. Which of the following is not a component of revenue expenditure :
(A) Interest
(B) Public Administration
(C) Subsidies
(D) Buying of capital equipment
ANS- B
21. Sweat Glands occure in greatest niumber in the skin of :
(A) Forehead
(B) Armpits
(C) Back
(D) Plam of hand
ANS- B
22. Which of the following is a flightless bird ?
(A) Emu
(B) Hen
(C) Swan
(D) None of these
ANS- A
23. The bats are able to fly in dark since their wings produce :
(A) Sound waves
(B) Ultrasonic Waves
(C) Infra red rays
(D) Ultraviolet rays
ANS- B
24. Which of the following diseases is inheritable ?
(A) Leukemia
(B) Colour Blindness
(C) Maligency
(D) Hepatites
ANS- B
25. Honey has the largest percentage of :
(A) Water
(B) Starch
(C) Glucose
(D) Sucrose
ANS- D
26 Which of the following is a mixed fertilizer ?
(A) Urea
(B) Ammonium
(C) CAM
(D) NPK
ANS- D
27. Which of the following is an exception to cell theory ?
(A) Bacteria
(B) Fungi
(C) Virus
(D) Lichens
ANS- C
28. Light emmited by sun reaches Earth in :
(A) 1 second
(B) 10 seconds
(C) 13 seconds
(D) 8 seconds
ANS - D
29. Which of the following fuels causes minimum environmental pollution ?
(A) Diesel
(B) Kerosene
(C) Hydrogen
(D) Coal
ANS- C
30. The average salt content of sea water is :
(A) 1.0 %
(B) 3.5 %
(C) 10.0 %
(D) 12.3 %
ANS- B
31. Blood grouping was discovered by :
(A) William Harvey
(B) Landsteinar
(C) Robert Coach
(D) Luis Pasteur
ANS- B
32. The extreme form of Ahinsa or non-violence is practiced is :
(A) Buddhism
(B) Hinduism
(C) Jainism
(D) None of these
ANS- C
33. The great Hindu Law giver was :
(A) Kapil
(B) Banbatta
(C) Kautilya
(D) Mnau
ANS- D
34. Chandragupta Maurya spent his last days at :
(A) Ujjain
(B) Nalanda
(C) Shravanbela gola
(D) Patna
ANS- C
35. The court language of Mughals was :
(A) Arabic
(B) Hindi
(C) Persian
(D) Urdu
ANS- C
36. The Dutch first established their hold in India in 1605 at :
(A) Goa
(B) Surat
(C) Gujarat
(D) Masulipatnam
ANS- D
37. The English weekly edited by :
(A) Kesari
(B) Comrade
(C) Bombay Chronicle
(D) Young India
ANS- D
38. Who among the following was a prominent officer of Azad Hind Fauz ?
(A) Aruna Asaf Ali
(B) Shahnawaz Khan
(C) Dr. M.A.A nsari
(D) Ghaffar Khan
ANS- B
39. Who is the longest serving Chief Minister in India ?
(A) Bhajan Lal
(B) Chimanbhai Patel
(C) Jyoti Basu
(D) Hiteshwar Saikia
ANS- C
40. Among the following which is the largest Island in the world ?
(A) England
(B) Japan
(C) Borneo
(D) New Guinea
ANS- B
41. Which of the following is the Black Mountain ?
(A) Andes
(B) Alps
(C) Rocky Mountain
(D) Vosges
ANS- C
42. Which of the following is a deepest lake ?
(A) Lake Victoria
(B) Lake Caspian
(C) Lake Superior
(D) Lake Baikal
ANS- D
43. The original home of the Gyosies was :
(A) Russia
(B) Persia
(C) India
(D) Egypt
ANS- D
44. Dry farming in India is extensively practised in :
(A) Kanara plains
(B) Deccan region
(C) Coromandel Plains
(D) Punjab Plains
ANS- B
45. Deepest mine in India is located at ?
(A) Anantpur
(B) Bellary
(C) Kolar
(D) Hspet
ANS- C
46. At present India's largest mineral resource is
(A) Copper
(B) Coal
(C) Iron-ore
(D) None of these
ANS- B
47. The length of the Konkan Railway is :
(A) 560 kms
(B) 660 kms
(C) 760 kms
(D) 860 kms
ANS- C
48. Which of the following is known as Queen of Arabian Sea ?
(A) Cochin
(B) Trivendrum
(C) Aalleppey
(D) Mangalore
ANS- A
49. Who wrote the famous book "We The People" ?
(A) JRD TATA
(B) Khushwant Singh
(C) T.N.Kaul
(D) Nana Palkhivala
ANS- D
50. MS Kim Campbell is the first woman prime minister of :
(A) Congo
(B) Portugal
(C) Philippines
(D) Canada
ANS- D
Tuesday, November 23, 2010
Annamalai University B.A. degree examination, 2010 - English - Third year - Part - III - Paper - VI - Drama Question paper
( ENGLISH )
( THIRD YEAR )
( PART - III )
( PAPER - VI )
710. DRAMA
( Common to B.A. English & communication
& Double Degree - Old Regulations )
May ] [ Time : 3 Hours
Maximum : 100 Marks
Annotate any FIVE of the following Passages,
choosing at least TWO from each Group.
GROUP - A (5 × 4 = 20)
1. A loft cedar tree, fair flourishing On whose top branches kingly eagles perch, And by the bank a Canker creeps me up, And gets unto the highest bough of all.
2. For now, my lord the king regards me not. But does upon the love of Gaveston. He clasps his cheeks and hangs about his neck - smiles in his face and whispers in his ears.
3. But what are kings when regiment is gone but perfect shadows in a sunshine day.
4. Fairwell fair queen, weep not Mortimer this scorns the world, and as a traveler goes to
discover countries yet unknown.
5. Fear 'd am I more than loved, let me be fear'd and when I frown. Make all the court look pale.
GROUP - B
1. A good deal I' ll Keep the cloak ; and you take care that nobody comes in and sees without it. This is a better weapon than the revolver.
2. And there was Don Quixote.... ought to be court - martialled for it.
3. Madam ! it was the cradle and grave of my military reputation.
4. That is the whole secret of successful fighting.
5. It he discovers our secret, he will never forgive me ; and my daughter's life will hardly be safe.
II. Answer any ONE of the following :(1 × 20 = 20)
11. 'Character is destiny'. Explain with reference to Edward - II.
12. Sketch the character of Kent.
13. Discuss Edward - II a typical Marlovian Tragedy.
II. Answer any ONE of the following :(1 × 20 = 20)
14. Examine Shaw's Views on War in Arms and the Man.
15. How does Shaw portray his women characters in Arms and the Man ?
16. Discuss Arms and The Man as an anti romantic comedy.
IV. Answer any ONE of the following : (2 × 20 = 40)
17. (a) Treat The way of the World as a satire on the Restoration Comedy.
(OR)
(b) Attempt a character sketch of Millamant.
18. (a) Anti - sentimental comedy and The Rivals.
(OR)
(b) How does Lydia Languish serve as a representative of her times.
19. (a) Consider Strife as a conflict between capital and labour.
(OR)
(b) Analyze the plot of strife.
( THIRD YEAR )
( PART - III )
( PAPER - VI )
710. DRAMA
( Common to B.A. English & communication
& Double Degree - Old Regulations )
May ] [ Time : 3 Hours
Maximum : 100 Marks
Annotate any FIVE of the following Passages,
choosing at least TWO from each Group.
GROUP - A (5 × 4 = 20)
1. A loft cedar tree, fair flourishing On whose top branches kingly eagles perch, And by the bank a Canker creeps me up, And gets unto the highest bough of all.
2. For now, my lord the king regards me not. But does upon the love of Gaveston. He clasps his cheeks and hangs about his neck - smiles in his face and whispers in his ears.
3. But what are kings when regiment is gone but perfect shadows in a sunshine day.
4. Fairwell fair queen, weep not Mortimer this scorns the world, and as a traveler goes to
discover countries yet unknown.
5. Fear 'd am I more than loved, let me be fear'd and when I frown. Make all the court look pale.
GROUP - B
1. A good deal I' ll Keep the cloak ; and you take care that nobody comes in and sees without it. This is a better weapon than the revolver.
2. And there was Don Quixote.... ought to be court - martialled for it.
3. Madam ! it was the cradle and grave of my military reputation.
4. That is the whole secret of successful fighting.
5. It he discovers our secret, he will never forgive me ; and my daughter's life will hardly be safe.
II. Answer any ONE of the following :(1 × 20 = 20)
11. 'Character is destiny'. Explain with reference to Edward - II.
12. Sketch the character of Kent.
13. Discuss Edward - II a typical Marlovian Tragedy.
II. Answer any ONE of the following :(1 × 20 = 20)
14. Examine Shaw's Views on War in Arms and the Man.
15. How does Shaw portray his women characters in Arms and the Man ?
16. Discuss Arms and The Man as an anti romantic comedy.
IV. Answer any ONE of the following : (2 × 20 = 40)
17. (a) Treat The way of the World as a satire on the Restoration Comedy.
(OR)
(b) Attempt a character sketch of Millamant.
18. (a) Anti - sentimental comedy and The Rivals.
(OR)
(b) How does Lydia Languish serve as a representative of her times.
19. (a) Consider Strife as a conflict between capital and labour.
(OR)
(b) Analyze the plot of strife.
Chhattisgarh Pre. B.Ed. Exam. 2008 Question paper
Teaching Aptitude
1. Most important work of teacher is—
(A) to organize teaching work
(B) to deliver lecture in class
(C) to take care of children
(D) to evaluate the students
2. A teacher should be—
(A) Honest
(B) Dilligent
(C) Dutiful
(D) Punctual
3. Environmental education should be taught in schools because—
(A) it will affect environmental pollution
(B) it is important part of life
(C) it will provide job to teachers
(D) we cannot escape from environment
4. Navodaya Schools have been established to—
(A) increase number of school in rural areas
(B) provide good education in rural areas
(C) complete 'Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan'
(D) check wastage of education in rural areas
5. At primary level, it is better to teach in mother language because—
(A) it develops self-confidence in children
(B) it makes learning easy
(C) it is helpful in intellectual development
(D) it helps children in learning in natural atmosphere
6. Women are better teacher at primary level because—
(A) they behave more patiently with children
(B) they are ready to work with low salary
(C) higher qualification is not needed in this profession
(D) they have less chances in other profession
7. You have been selected in all the four professions given below. Where would you like to go ?
(A) Teacher
(B) Police
(C) Army
(D) Bank
8. What is most important while writing on blackboard ?
(A) Good writing
(B) Clarity in writing
(C) Writing in big letters
(D) Writing in small letters
9. Some students send a greeting card to you on teacher's day. What will you do ? You will—
(A) do nothing
(B) say thanks to them
(C) ask them to not to waste money
(D) reciprocate the good wishes to them
10. A student comes late in your class. Then you will—
(A) inform to parents
(B) punish him
(C) try to know the reason
(D) not pay attention there
11. When the students become failed, it can be understood that—
(A) The system has failed
(B) The teachers failure
(C) The text-books failure
(D) The individual student's failure
12. It is advantage of giving home work that students—
(A) remain busy at home
(B) study at home
(C) may be checked for their progress
(D) may develop habit of self study
13. In computers, the length of a word is measured in—
(A) Bit
(B) Byte
(C) Millimeter
(D) None of these
14. Who is known as 'father of computer' ?
(A) B. Pascal
(B) H. Hollerith
(C) Charles Babbage
(D) J. V. Neumann
15. A teacher has serious defect is he/she—
(A) is physically handicapped
(B) belongs to low socio-economic status
(C) has weak personality
(D) has immature mental development
116. The success of teacher is—
(A) high achievement of students
(B) good traits of his/her personality
(C) his/her good teaching
(D) his/her good character
17. A Deepawali fair is being organized in your school. What would you like to do ?
(A) only to visit the fair
(B) to take part in function
(C) to take a shop to sell something
(D) to distribute free water to visitors
18. The most important trait of a student is—
(A) sense of responsibility
(B) to speak truth
(C) co-operation
(D) obedience
19. The purpose of basic education scheme is—
(A) universalization of primary education
(B) to vocationalise the eduction
(C) to fulfil basic need of persons through education
(D) to make education compulsory for all
20. You are teaching a topic in class and a student ask a question unrelated to the topic. What will you do ?
(A) you will allow him to ask unrelated question
(B) you will not allow him to ask unrealated question
(C) you will consider it indiscipline and punish him
(D) you will answer the question after the class
21. If you are unable to get a job of teacher, then you will—
(A) start giving tuition at home
(B) remain at home till you get a job
(C) take some another job
(D) continue applying for teaching
22. A teacher can motivate the students by—
(A) giving suitable prizes
(B) giving proper guidance
(C) giving examples
(D) delivering speech in class
23. If a student does not pay any respect to you, then you will—
(A) ignore him
(B) award less marks in examination
(C) talk to his/her parents
(D) rebuke him
24. National Literacy Mission was established in—
(A) 1996
(B) 1988
(C) 1999
(D) 2000
25. The aim of National Council for teacher education is—
(A) to open college of education
(B) to promote research in education
(C) to maintain standards in colleges of education
(D) to provide grant to colleges of education
26. Kindergarten system of education was contributed by—
(A) T. P. Nunn
(B) Spencer
(C) Froebel
(D) Montessori
27. 'National Council of Educational Research and Training' was established in—
(A) 1961
(B) 1962
(C) 1963
(D) 1964
28. Essay type test are not reliable because—
(A) their answers are different
(B) their results are different
(C) their checking is affected by examiner's mood
(D) their responding styles are different
29. A guardian never comes to see you in school.
You will—
(A) ignore the child
(B) write to the guardian
(C) go to meet him youself
(D) start punishing the child
30. To maintain interest among students in class, a teacher should—
(A) use blackboard
(B) discuss
(C) tell stories
(D) ask question
31. The purpose of new education policy is—
(A) to provide equal opportunity of education to all
(B) to improve the whole education system
(C) to link the education with employment
(D) to delink the degree with education
32. To raise the standard of education, it is necessary—
(A) to evaluate students continuously
(B) to give high salary to teachers
(C) to revise curriculum
(D) to make good school building
33. What is most important for a teacher ?
(A) to maintain discipline in class
(B) to be punctual in class
(C) to remove difficulties of students
(D) to be good orator
34. Why students should play games in school ?
(A) It makes them physically strong
(B) It makes work easier for teachers
(C) It helps in passing time
(D) It develops co-operation and physical balance
35. Family is a means of—
(A) Informal education
(B) Formal education
(C) Non-formal education
(D) Distance education
36. There is tension among villagers and you are teacher there. What will you do ?
(A) You will inform "Gram Pradhan"
(B) You will try to pacify them
(C) You will report to police
(D) You will keep distance from them
37. A teacher can develop social values among students by—
(A) telling them about great people
(B) developing sense of discipline
(C) behaving ideally
(D) telling them good stories
38. What will you do in leisure time in school ?
You will—
(A) take rest in teacher's room
(B) read magazines in library
(C) talk to clerks in office
(D) check home work of students
39. A teacher asks the questions in the class to—
(A) keep students busy
(B) maintain discipline
(C) attract student's attention
(D) teach
40. You like teaching profession because—
(A) it has less responsibility
(B) you are interested in it
(C) it is easy
(D) it provide you more holidays
41. How the students should be motivated to get success in life ?
(A) Selected study
(B) Incidental study
(C) Intensive study
(D) Learning by recitation
42. In context of the habit of Absenteeism of student—
(A) The principal and parents should get worried
(B) The officials of the schools should take action against them as per school's discipline
(C) The teachers should take it as a serious problem
(D) They should be given less priority in the class room in relation to regular students
43. To whom the responsibility of organisation of curricular activities should be stored with ?
(A) The principal
(B) The teacher who is appointed for this work
(C) The teachers who take interest in it
(D) All the teachers
44. When the students try to solve the questions in some different way as taught by the teacher from prescribed books, then these students should be—
(A) Discouraged to consult some other books on the subject
(B) Encouraged to consult some other books on the subject
(C) Suggested to talk with their teacher after the period
(D) Suggested to follow the class room notes in order to get good mark in the examination
45. The experienced teachers do not require the detailed lesson plan of a topic because—
(A) They can teach in a good manner without its help
(B) The number of curious students is very poor in the class
(C) When they commit some mistake, they do not face any challange from their students
(D) They can equip themselves with brief outline as they gain specialisation in it through experience
46. The problem of drop-out in which students leave their schooling in early years can be tackled in a better way through—
(A) Reduction of the weight of curriculum
(B) Sympathy of teachers
(C) Attractive environment of the school
(D) Encouragement of the students
47. The ideal teacher—
(A) Teaches the whole curriculum
(B) Helps his students in learning
(C) Is a friend, philosopher and guide
(D) Maintains good discipline
48. The aim of education should be—
(A) To develop vocational skills in the students
(B) To develop social awareness in the students
(C) To prepare the students for examination
(D) To prepare the students for practical life
49. The best method of checking student's homework is—
(A) To assign it to intelligent students of the class
(B) To check the answers in the class in group manner
(C) To check them with the help of specimen answer
(D) To check by the teacher himself in a regular way
50. A time bound testing programme for a students should be implemented in Shools so that—
(A) The progress of the students should be informed to their parents
(B) A regular practice can be carried out
(C) The students can be trained for final examinations
(D) The remedial programme can be adopted on the basis of the feedback from the results
51. The essential element of the syllabus for the children remained out of school should be—
(A) Literacy competencies
(B) Life-skills
(C) Numerical competencies
(D) Vocational competencies
52. The contribution of taxpayers in Primary education is in the form of—
(A) Income Tax
(B) Tuition Fee
(C) Paying money for individual tution
(D) Educational cess
53. The priority to girls education should be given because—
(A) The girls are more intelligent in comparison than the boys
(B) The girls are lesser in number than boys
(C) The girls were badly discriminated in favour of boys in the past
(D) Only girls are capable of leading for social change
54. The success of integrated education depends on—
(A) The support of community
(B) The excellence of text-books
(C) The highest quality of teaching-learning material
(D) The attitudinal changes in teachers
55. The quality of schools education is exclusively depending upon—
(A) Infrastructural facilities
(B) Financial provisions
(C) International support
(D) The quality of teacher education
56. The idea of Basic Education is propounded by—
(A) Dr. Zakir Hussain
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) Rabindranath Tagore
57. The most important indicator of quality of education in a school is—
(A) Infrastructural facilities of a school
(B) Classroom system
(C) Text-books and Teaching-learning material
(D) Student Achievement level
58. The best remedy of the student's problems related with learning is—
(A) Suggestion for hard work
(B) Supervised study in Library
(C) Suggestion for private tuition
(D) Diagnostic teaching
59. The in-service teacher' training can be made more effective by—
(A) Using training package which in wellprepared in advance
(B) Making it a residential programme
(C) Using co-operative approach
(D) Practising training followup procedures
60. Child Labour Prohibition Act (1986)—
(A) Prohibits all types of child labour upto 14 years of age of child
(B) Prohibits child labour in risk-taking works only
(C) Prohibits child labour during school hours only
(D) Prohibits child labour by imposing the responsibility of children's education on the employers
Answers:
1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (D) 6. (A) 7. (A) 8. (A) 9. (B) 10. (C)
11. (D) 12. (D) 13. (A) 14. (C) 15. (D) 16. (C) 17. (B) 18. (D) 19. (C) 20. (D)
21. (D) 22. (A) 23. (A) 24. (B) 25. (C) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (C) 29. (C) 30. (D)
31. (B) 32. (A) 33. (C) 34. (D) 35. (A) 36. (B) 37. (C) 38. (D) 39. (C) 40. (B)
41. (C) 42. (C) 43. (A) 44. (B) 45. (D) 46. (D) 47. (C) 48. (D) 49. (D) 50. (D)
51. (D) 52. (D) 53. (D) 54. (B) 55. (D) 56. (C) 57. (D) 58. (D) 59. (D) 60. (A)
1. Most important work of teacher is—
(A) to organize teaching work
(B) to deliver lecture in class
(C) to take care of children
(D) to evaluate the students
2. A teacher should be—
(A) Honest
(B) Dilligent
(C) Dutiful
(D) Punctual
3. Environmental education should be taught in schools because—
(A) it will affect environmental pollution
(B) it is important part of life
(C) it will provide job to teachers
(D) we cannot escape from environment
4. Navodaya Schools have been established to—
(A) increase number of school in rural areas
(B) provide good education in rural areas
(C) complete 'Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan'
(D) check wastage of education in rural areas
5. At primary level, it is better to teach in mother language because—
(A) it develops self-confidence in children
(B) it makes learning easy
(C) it is helpful in intellectual development
(D) it helps children in learning in natural atmosphere
6. Women are better teacher at primary level because—
(A) they behave more patiently with children
(B) they are ready to work with low salary
(C) higher qualification is not needed in this profession
(D) they have less chances in other profession
7. You have been selected in all the four professions given below. Where would you like to go ?
(A) Teacher
(B) Police
(C) Army
(D) Bank
8. What is most important while writing on blackboard ?
(A) Good writing
(B) Clarity in writing
(C) Writing in big letters
(D) Writing in small letters
9. Some students send a greeting card to you on teacher's day. What will you do ? You will—
(A) do nothing
(B) say thanks to them
(C) ask them to not to waste money
(D) reciprocate the good wishes to them
10. A student comes late in your class. Then you will—
(A) inform to parents
(B) punish him
(C) try to know the reason
(D) not pay attention there
11. When the students become failed, it can be understood that—
(A) The system has failed
(B) The teachers failure
(C) The text-books failure
(D) The individual student's failure
12. It is advantage of giving home work that students—
(A) remain busy at home
(B) study at home
(C) may be checked for their progress
(D) may develop habit of self study
13. In computers, the length of a word is measured in—
(A) Bit
(B) Byte
(C) Millimeter
(D) None of these
14. Who is known as 'father of computer' ?
(A) B. Pascal
(B) H. Hollerith
(C) Charles Babbage
(D) J. V. Neumann
15. A teacher has serious defect is he/she—
(A) is physically handicapped
(B) belongs to low socio-economic status
(C) has weak personality
(D) has immature mental development
116. The success of teacher is—
(A) high achievement of students
(B) good traits of his/her personality
(C) his/her good teaching
(D) his/her good character
17. A Deepawali fair is being organized in your school. What would you like to do ?
(A) only to visit the fair
(B) to take part in function
(C) to take a shop to sell something
(D) to distribute free water to visitors
18. The most important trait of a student is—
(A) sense of responsibility
(B) to speak truth
(C) co-operation
(D) obedience
19. The purpose of basic education scheme is—
(A) universalization of primary education
(B) to vocationalise the eduction
(C) to fulfil basic need of persons through education
(D) to make education compulsory for all
20. You are teaching a topic in class and a student ask a question unrelated to the topic. What will you do ?
(A) you will allow him to ask unrelated question
(B) you will not allow him to ask unrealated question
(C) you will consider it indiscipline and punish him
(D) you will answer the question after the class
21. If you are unable to get a job of teacher, then you will—
(A) start giving tuition at home
(B) remain at home till you get a job
(C) take some another job
(D) continue applying for teaching
22. A teacher can motivate the students by—
(A) giving suitable prizes
(B) giving proper guidance
(C) giving examples
(D) delivering speech in class
23. If a student does not pay any respect to you, then you will—
(A) ignore him
(B) award less marks in examination
(C) talk to his/her parents
(D) rebuke him
24. National Literacy Mission was established in—
(A) 1996
(B) 1988
(C) 1999
(D) 2000
25. The aim of National Council for teacher education is—
(A) to open college of education
(B) to promote research in education
(C) to maintain standards in colleges of education
(D) to provide grant to colleges of education
26. Kindergarten system of education was contributed by—
(A) T. P. Nunn
(B) Spencer
(C) Froebel
(D) Montessori
27. 'National Council of Educational Research and Training' was established in—
(A) 1961
(B) 1962
(C) 1963
(D) 1964
28. Essay type test are not reliable because—
(A) their answers are different
(B) their results are different
(C) their checking is affected by examiner's mood
(D) their responding styles are different
29. A guardian never comes to see you in school.
You will—
(A) ignore the child
(B) write to the guardian
(C) go to meet him youself
(D) start punishing the child
30. To maintain interest among students in class, a teacher should—
(A) use blackboard
(B) discuss
(C) tell stories
(D) ask question
31. The purpose of new education policy is—
(A) to provide equal opportunity of education to all
(B) to improve the whole education system
(C) to link the education with employment
(D) to delink the degree with education
32. To raise the standard of education, it is necessary—
(A) to evaluate students continuously
(B) to give high salary to teachers
(C) to revise curriculum
(D) to make good school building
33. What is most important for a teacher ?
(A) to maintain discipline in class
(B) to be punctual in class
(C) to remove difficulties of students
(D) to be good orator
34. Why students should play games in school ?
(A) It makes them physically strong
(B) It makes work easier for teachers
(C) It helps in passing time
(D) It develops co-operation and physical balance
35. Family is a means of—
(A) Informal education
(B) Formal education
(C) Non-formal education
(D) Distance education
36. There is tension among villagers and you are teacher there. What will you do ?
(A) You will inform "Gram Pradhan"
(B) You will try to pacify them
(C) You will report to police
(D) You will keep distance from them
37. A teacher can develop social values among students by—
(A) telling them about great people
(B) developing sense of discipline
(C) behaving ideally
(D) telling them good stories
38. What will you do in leisure time in school ?
You will—
(A) take rest in teacher's room
(B) read magazines in library
(C) talk to clerks in office
(D) check home work of students
39. A teacher asks the questions in the class to—
(A) keep students busy
(B) maintain discipline
(C) attract student's attention
(D) teach
40. You like teaching profession because—
(A) it has less responsibility
(B) you are interested in it
(C) it is easy
(D) it provide you more holidays
41. How the students should be motivated to get success in life ?
(A) Selected study
(B) Incidental study
(C) Intensive study
(D) Learning by recitation
42. In context of the habit of Absenteeism of student—
(A) The principal and parents should get worried
(B) The officials of the schools should take action against them as per school's discipline
(C) The teachers should take it as a serious problem
(D) They should be given less priority in the class room in relation to regular students
43. To whom the responsibility of organisation of curricular activities should be stored with ?
(A) The principal
(B) The teacher who is appointed for this work
(C) The teachers who take interest in it
(D) All the teachers
44. When the students try to solve the questions in some different way as taught by the teacher from prescribed books, then these students should be—
(A) Discouraged to consult some other books on the subject
(B) Encouraged to consult some other books on the subject
(C) Suggested to talk with their teacher after the period
(D) Suggested to follow the class room notes in order to get good mark in the examination
45. The experienced teachers do not require the detailed lesson plan of a topic because—
(A) They can teach in a good manner without its help
(B) The number of curious students is very poor in the class
(C) When they commit some mistake, they do not face any challange from their students
(D) They can equip themselves with brief outline as they gain specialisation in it through experience
46. The problem of drop-out in which students leave their schooling in early years can be tackled in a better way through—
(A) Reduction of the weight of curriculum
(B) Sympathy of teachers
(C) Attractive environment of the school
(D) Encouragement of the students
47. The ideal teacher—
(A) Teaches the whole curriculum
(B) Helps his students in learning
(C) Is a friend, philosopher and guide
(D) Maintains good discipline
48. The aim of education should be—
(A) To develop vocational skills in the students
(B) To develop social awareness in the students
(C) To prepare the students for examination
(D) To prepare the students for practical life
49. The best method of checking student's homework is—
(A) To assign it to intelligent students of the class
(B) To check the answers in the class in group manner
(C) To check them with the help of specimen answer
(D) To check by the teacher himself in a regular way
50. A time bound testing programme for a students should be implemented in Shools so that—
(A) The progress of the students should be informed to their parents
(B) A regular practice can be carried out
(C) The students can be trained for final examinations
(D) The remedial programme can be adopted on the basis of the feedback from the results
51. The essential element of the syllabus for the children remained out of school should be—
(A) Literacy competencies
(B) Life-skills
(C) Numerical competencies
(D) Vocational competencies
52. The contribution of taxpayers in Primary education is in the form of—
(A) Income Tax
(B) Tuition Fee
(C) Paying money for individual tution
(D) Educational cess
53. The priority to girls education should be given because—
(A) The girls are more intelligent in comparison than the boys
(B) The girls are lesser in number than boys
(C) The girls were badly discriminated in favour of boys in the past
(D) Only girls are capable of leading for social change
54. The success of integrated education depends on—
(A) The support of community
(B) The excellence of text-books
(C) The highest quality of teaching-learning material
(D) The attitudinal changes in teachers
55. The quality of schools education is exclusively depending upon—
(A) Infrastructural facilities
(B) Financial provisions
(C) International support
(D) The quality of teacher education
56. The idea of Basic Education is propounded by—
(A) Dr. Zakir Hussain
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) Rabindranath Tagore
57. The most important indicator of quality of education in a school is—
(A) Infrastructural facilities of a school
(B) Classroom system
(C) Text-books and Teaching-learning material
(D) Student Achievement level
58. The best remedy of the student's problems related with learning is—
(A) Suggestion for hard work
(B) Supervised study in Library
(C) Suggestion for private tuition
(D) Diagnostic teaching
59. The in-service teacher' training can be made more effective by—
(A) Using training package which in wellprepared in advance
(B) Making it a residential programme
(C) Using co-operative approach
(D) Practising training followup procedures
60. Child Labour Prohibition Act (1986)—
(A) Prohibits all types of child labour upto 14 years of age of child
(B) Prohibits child labour in risk-taking works only
(C) Prohibits child labour during school hours only
(D) Prohibits child labour by imposing the responsibility of children's education on the employers
Answers:
1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (D) 6. (A) 7. (A) 8. (A) 9. (B) 10. (C)
11. (D) 12. (D) 13. (A) 14. (C) 15. (D) 16. (C) 17. (B) 18. (D) 19. (C) 20. (D)
21. (D) 22. (A) 23. (A) 24. (B) 25. (C) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (C) 29. (C) 30. (D)
31. (B) 32. (A) 33. (C) 34. (D) 35. (A) 36. (B) 37. (C) 38. (D) 39. (C) 40. (B)
41. (C) 42. (C) 43. (A) 44. (B) 45. (D) 46. (D) 47. (C) 48. (D) 49. (D) 50. (D)
51. (D) 52. (D) 53. (D) 54. (B) 55. (D) 56. (C) 57. (D) 58. (D) 59. (D) 60. (A)
Bsf general duty constrble exam previous paper 2009 Question paper
Maths section:
1. 46853 - 39746 = ? - 4456
(1) 7.107 (2) 8427 (3) 10243, (4) 11563 (5) None of these
2. (0.75 x 4.4 x 2.4) + 0.6 = ?
III 13.2 (2) 4.752 (3) 15.84 (4) 12 (5) None of these
3. 55.06 + 19.73 + 85.024 = ?
(1) 160.03 (2) 158.914 (3) 160.534 (4) 159.99 (5) None of these
4. 884697 - 773697 - 102479 = ?
(1) 8531 (2) 8521 (3) 8512 (4) 8251 (5) None of these
5. (9)power 3 + (3)power 2 + (6)power3 + (15)power 2 =?
III 756.96 ' (2) 90.16 (3) 738.96 (4) 756.064 (5) None ofthese
6. ((?]power 2 + (18)power 2 ÷ 125 = 3.56
(1) 15 (2) 12 (3) 11 (4) 14 (5) None of these
7. 15.4x25+40/3.5x6.4 +27.6 =?
(1) 6.5 (2) 10 (3) 8 (4) 8.5 (5) None of these
8. 75 x 28 - 126 = ?
(1) 1894 (2) 1956 (3) 1994 (4) 1974
(5) None of these
9. 465 + 2.5 = ?% of 1500
(1) 14.2 (2) 16.6 (3) 15.4 (4) 12.4 (5) None of these
10. 124 x 39 +? ÷ 45 = 108
(1) 28 (2) 22 (3) 32 (4) 14 (5) None of these
11. 786 ÷ 24 x? = 6.55
(1) 0.2 (2) 4 (3) 0.4 (4) 5 (5) None of these
12. (308 + 144 + 254) + (756 - 665-71) =?
(1) 34.8 (2) 36.4 (3) 35.3 (4) 36.2 (5) None of these
13. 8024 ÷ 59 x ? + 48 = 4944
1. 42 (2) 28 (3) 36 (4) 46 (5) None of these
14. (425 x 4000) + 16000 x 12 = ?
(1) 925 (2) 1275 (3) 1700 (4) 8.85 (5) None of these
15. 6731 + 53 x 8 = ?
(1) 1024 (2) 1016 (3) 1022 (4) 762 (5) None of these
1. 4 2. 1 3. 5 4. 2 5. 3 6. 3 7. 4 8. 4 9. 4 10. 5 11. 1 12. 3 13. 3 14. 2 15. 2
Q. 16-30 GK/general awareness section:
16. The term nitshka which meant ornament in the Vedic period was used later times to denote
1. coin (2) weapon 3) script (4) husband
17. Lord Buddha was born in
(1) Lumbanii (2) Vaishali (3)Bodh Caya (4) Pavapuri
18. The number of Puranas are
1) 25 (2) 18 (3) 52 (4) 108
19. The national bird of India is
(1) Eagle (2) Lily (3) Lion (4) Peacock
20. The currency Japan is:
(1) Waht (2) Dinar (3) Dirham (4) Yen
21. Who was the first man to reach North pole?
(1) Robert Peary (2) Amundsen (3) Yuri Gagrin (4) None of these
22. The book 'Raghuvamsa' was written,by:
(1) Tulsidas (2) Valmiki (3) Kalidas (4) Minoo Masani
23. The height of Mt. Everest is :
(1) 8880 m (2) 8848 m. (3) 8511 m (4) 8484 m
24. In northern hemisphere the longest day falls on
(1) June 25 (2) Ju'ne 21 (3) December 21
(4) June 27
25. Marble is what kind of rock.
(1) Igneous (2) Sedimentary (3) MetamorphiC (4) None of these
26. The Headquarters of Universal Postal Union is:
(1) Berne (2) Rome' (3) Geneva (4) New York
27. First world war started in :
(1) 1914 (2) 1916 (3) 1918 (4) 1920
28 Who invented aeroplane?
(1) W. Roentgen (2) Wright brothers (3) Z. Jansen (4) Pitman
29. Who was the first preseident of India?
1. Dr. Rajendra Prasad 2. B.K Hari 3. Bhimrap Ambedkar 4. P. Nehru
30. what is the Capital of USA?
1. New York. 2. Washington DC 3. Houston 4. Boston
Ans: 16.3 17. 1 18. 4 19. 4 20. 21. 1 22. 3 23. 2 24. 2 25. 3 26. 1 27. 1 28. 2 29. 1 30. 2
1. 46853 - 39746 = ? - 4456
(1) 7.107 (2) 8427 (3) 10243, (4) 11563 (5) None of these
2. (0.75 x 4.4 x 2.4) + 0.6 = ?
III 13.2 (2) 4.752 (3) 15.84 (4) 12 (5) None of these
3. 55.06 + 19.73 + 85.024 = ?
(1) 160.03 (2) 158.914 (3) 160.534 (4) 159.99 (5) None of these
4. 884697 - 773697 - 102479 = ?
(1) 8531 (2) 8521 (3) 8512 (4) 8251 (5) None of these
5. (9)power 3 + (3)power 2 + (6)power3 + (15)power 2 =?
III 756.96 ' (2) 90.16 (3) 738.96 (4) 756.064 (5) None ofthese
6. ((?]power 2 + (18)power 2 ÷ 125 = 3.56
(1) 15 (2) 12 (3) 11 (4) 14 (5) None of these
7. 15.4x25+40/3.5x6.4 +27.6 =?
(1) 6.5 (2) 10 (3) 8 (4) 8.5 (5) None of these
8. 75 x 28 - 126 = ?
(1) 1894 (2) 1956 (3) 1994 (4) 1974
(5) None of these
9. 465 + 2.5 = ?% of 1500
(1) 14.2 (2) 16.6 (3) 15.4 (4) 12.4 (5) None of these
10. 124 x 39 +? ÷ 45 = 108
(1) 28 (2) 22 (3) 32 (4) 14 (5) None of these
11. 786 ÷ 24 x? = 6.55
(1) 0.2 (2) 4 (3) 0.4 (4) 5 (5) None of these
12. (308 + 144 + 254) + (756 - 665-71) =?
(1) 34.8 (2) 36.4 (3) 35.3 (4) 36.2 (5) None of these
13. 8024 ÷ 59 x ? + 48 = 4944
1. 42 (2) 28 (3) 36 (4) 46 (5) None of these
14. (425 x 4000) + 16000 x 12 = ?
(1) 925 (2) 1275 (3) 1700 (4) 8.85 (5) None of these
15. 6731 + 53 x 8 = ?
(1) 1024 (2) 1016 (3) 1022 (4) 762 (5) None of these
1. 4 2. 1 3. 5 4. 2 5. 3 6. 3 7. 4 8. 4 9. 4 10. 5 11. 1 12. 3 13. 3 14. 2 15. 2
Q. 16-30 GK/general awareness section:
16. The term nitshka which meant ornament in the Vedic period was used later times to denote
1. coin (2) weapon 3) script (4) husband
17. Lord Buddha was born in
(1) Lumbanii (2) Vaishali (3)Bodh Caya (4) Pavapuri
18. The number of Puranas are
1) 25 (2) 18 (3) 52 (4) 108
19. The national bird of India is
(1) Eagle (2) Lily (3) Lion (4) Peacock
20. The currency Japan is:
(1) Waht (2) Dinar (3) Dirham (4) Yen
21. Who was the first man to reach North pole?
(1) Robert Peary (2) Amundsen (3) Yuri Gagrin (4) None of these
22. The book 'Raghuvamsa' was written,by:
(1) Tulsidas (2) Valmiki (3) Kalidas (4) Minoo Masani
23. The height of Mt. Everest is :
(1) 8880 m (2) 8848 m. (3) 8511 m (4) 8484 m
24. In northern hemisphere the longest day falls on
(1) June 25 (2) Ju'ne 21 (3) December 21
(4) June 27
25. Marble is what kind of rock.
(1) Igneous (2) Sedimentary (3) MetamorphiC (4) None of these
26. The Headquarters of Universal Postal Union is:
(1) Berne (2) Rome' (3) Geneva (4) New York
27. First world war started in :
(1) 1914 (2) 1916 (3) 1918 (4) 1920
28 Who invented aeroplane?
(1) W. Roentgen (2) Wright brothers (3) Z. Jansen (4) Pitman
29. Who was the first preseident of India?
1. Dr. Rajendra Prasad 2. B.K Hari 3. Bhimrap Ambedkar 4. P. Nehru
30. what is the Capital of USA?
1. New York. 2. Washington DC 3. Houston 4. Boston
Ans: 16.3 17. 1 18. 4 19. 4 20. 21. 1 22. 3 23. 2 24. 2 25. 3 26. 1 27. 1 28. 2 29. 1 30. 2
Annamalai University B.A English B.A. Degree Examination, 2010 - English - Third year - Part - III - Paper - VII - Shakespeare Question paper
(ENGLISH)
( THIRD YEAR )
( PART - III )
( PAPER - VII)
720. SHAKESPEARE
( Common to B.A. English and
Communications)
( Including Lateral Entry )
May ] [ Time : 3 Hours
Maximum : 100 Marks
Answer ALL the questions.
All questions carry equal marks.
I. Annotate any FIVE of the following passages, choosing at least TWO from each group : (5×4= 20)
GROUP - A
(a) For know Iago, But that I love the gentle Desdemona I would not my unhoused free condition Put into circumspection and confine For the sea's worth.
(b) She that could think, and ne'er disclose her mind See suitors following and not look behind.
She was a wight, if ever such wights were.
(c) I'll catch him tame and talk him out of patience His bed shall seem a school, his board a shrift I'll intermingle everything he do 's With Cassio 's suit.
(d) I would have him nine years a killing, A fine woman ! A fine woman ! A fair woman ! A sweet woman!
(e) I must weep But they are cruel tears : this sorrow's heavenly : It strikes where it doth love.
GROUP - B
(f) You taught me language and my profit on' Is I know how to curse.
(g) We are such stuff. As dreams are made on, and our little life Is rounded with a sleep.
(h) I had rather crack my siners, break my back Than you should such dishonour undergo While I sit lazy by.
(i) Both, both my girl : By foul play as they say 'st were we heard thence But blessedly holp hither.
(j) How beauteous mankind is ! O brave new world That has such people in it !
II. Write an essay on ONE of the following: ( 1×20 = 20)
1. Write an essay on music, songs and pageantry in the "The Tempest".
2. Sketch the character of Ariel.
3. Treat "The Tempest" as the last play of Shakespeare.
III. Write an essay on ONE of the following: ( 1×20 = 20)
4. Treat Othello as a tragic hero of Shakespeare.
5. Sketch the character of Desdemona.
6. Analyze the features of a Shakespearean tragedy with special reference to "Othello."
IV. Write an essay on TWO of the following: ( 2 ×20 =40)
7. (a) Sketch the character of King Richard - II.
(OR)
(b) Examine Shakespeare's treatment of history in "Richard - II.
8. (a) Sketch the character of Romeo.
(OR)
(b) Analyze the quarrel between the Montagues and the Capulets in "Romeo and Juliet."
9. (a) Sketch the character of Viola.
(OR)
(b) Bring out the qualities of a Shakespearean Romantic comedy with special reference to 'Twelfth Night.'
( THIRD YEAR )
( PART - III )
( PAPER - VII)
720. SHAKESPEARE
( Common to B.A. English and
Communications)
( Including Lateral Entry )
May ] [ Time : 3 Hours
Maximum : 100 Marks
Answer ALL the questions.
All questions carry equal marks.
I. Annotate any FIVE of the following passages, choosing at least TWO from each group : (5×4= 20)
GROUP - A
(a) For know Iago, But that I love the gentle Desdemona I would not my unhoused free condition Put into circumspection and confine For the sea's worth.
(b) She that could think, and ne'er disclose her mind See suitors following and not look behind.
She was a wight, if ever such wights were.
(c) I'll catch him tame and talk him out of patience His bed shall seem a school, his board a shrift I'll intermingle everything he do 's With Cassio 's suit.
(d) I would have him nine years a killing, A fine woman ! A fine woman ! A fair woman ! A sweet woman!
(e) I must weep But they are cruel tears : this sorrow's heavenly : It strikes where it doth love.
GROUP - B
(f) You taught me language and my profit on' Is I know how to curse.
(g) We are such stuff. As dreams are made on, and our little life Is rounded with a sleep.
(h) I had rather crack my siners, break my back Than you should such dishonour undergo While I sit lazy by.
(i) Both, both my girl : By foul play as they say 'st were we heard thence But blessedly holp hither.
(j) How beauteous mankind is ! O brave new world That has such people in it !
II. Write an essay on ONE of the following: ( 1×20 = 20)
1. Write an essay on music, songs and pageantry in the "The Tempest".
2. Sketch the character of Ariel.
3. Treat "The Tempest" as the last play of Shakespeare.
III. Write an essay on ONE of the following: ( 1×20 = 20)
4. Treat Othello as a tragic hero of Shakespeare.
5. Sketch the character of Desdemona.
6. Analyze the features of a Shakespearean tragedy with special reference to "Othello."
IV. Write an essay on TWO of the following: ( 2 ×20 =40)
7. (a) Sketch the character of King Richard - II.
(OR)
(b) Examine Shakespeare's treatment of history in "Richard - II.
8. (a) Sketch the character of Romeo.
(OR)
(b) Analyze the quarrel between the Montagues and the Capulets in "Romeo and Juliet."
9. (a) Sketch the character of Viola.
(OR)
(b) Bring out the qualities of a Shakespearean Romantic comedy with special reference to 'Twelfth Night.'
Annamalai University B.A. Degree Examination, 2010 - English and communications - Third year - Part - III - Paper - VIII - Communication skills Question paper
( ENGLISH AND COMMUNICATIONS )
( THIRD YEAR )
( PART - III )
( PAPER - VIII )
730. COMMUNICATION SKILLS
May ] [ Time : 3 Hours
Maximum : 100 Marks
SECTION - A ( 5 ×8 = 40)
Answer any FIVE of the following questions.
All questions carry equal marks.
1. (a) Explain the process of communication.
(b) Define communication.
2. (a) Mention the barriers to communication.
(b) Give an account of the listening skills.
3. (a) Describe the pre-interview preparation techniques.
(b) Write a note on the telephone manners.
4. (a) Mention the purposes of having meetings.
(b) What are the different types of visual aids and their functions ?
5. (a) Describe how a report is different from a letter.
(b) Write a report on any traffic accident you witnessed.
6. (a) Write a note on the parts of speech.
(b) Explain the role of question tags in communication..
7. (a) Explain graphic aids.
(b) Write a note on punctuations and capitalization.
8. (a) What is seminar or symposium ?
(b) Give the format of a business letter.
SECTION - B ( 3 × 20 = 60)
Answer any THREE of the following questions.
All questions carry equal mark.
9. (a) What is the role of non-verbal communication and explain the different items in it.
(OR)
(b) Give an account of the importance of communication.
10. (a) Describe the different characteristics of Job Interview.
(OR)
(b) What are the strategies in group discussion ?
11. (a) What are the characteristics involved in organising a successful meeting ?
(OR)
(b) Give an account of the preparations you need before giving a talk.
12. (a) Write a report on the resources facilities and services available in your town / college library.
(OR)
(b) Write a letter to the Municipal Commissioner about the mosquito menace in your area.
13. (a) How will you apply for a job in a multi - national company ?
(OR)
(b) Describe the importance given to grammar in communication.
( THIRD YEAR )
( PART - III )
( PAPER - VIII )
730. COMMUNICATION SKILLS
May ] [ Time : 3 Hours
Maximum : 100 Marks
SECTION - A ( 5 ×8 = 40)
Answer any FIVE of the following questions.
All questions carry equal marks.
1. (a) Explain the process of communication.
(b) Define communication.
2. (a) Mention the barriers to communication.
(b) Give an account of the listening skills.
3. (a) Describe the pre-interview preparation techniques.
(b) Write a note on the telephone manners.
4. (a) Mention the purposes of having meetings.
(b) What are the different types of visual aids and their functions ?
5. (a) Describe how a report is different from a letter.
(b) Write a report on any traffic accident you witnessed.
6. (a) Write a note on the parts of speech.
(b) Explain the role of question tags in communication..
7. (a) Explain graphic aids.
(b) Write a note on punctuations and capitalization.
8. (a) What is seminar or symposium ?
(b) Give the format of a business letter.
SECTION - B ( 3 × 20 = 60)
Answer any THREE of the following questions.
All questions carry equal mark.
9. (a) What is the role of non-verbal communication and explain the different items in it.
(OR)
(b) Give an account of the importance of communication.
10. (a) Describe the different characteristics of Job Interview.
(OR)
(b) What are the strategies in group discussion ?
11. (a) What are the characteristics involved in organising a successful meeting ?
(OR)
(b) Give an account of the preparations you need before giving a talk.
12. (a) Write a report on the resources facilities and services available in your town / college library.
(OR)
(b) Write a letter to the Municipal Commissioner about the mosquito menace in your area.
13. (a) How will you apply for a job in a multi - national company ?
(OR)
(b) Describe the importance given to grammar in communication.
CBSE 12th KVS Junior Mathematics Olympiad – 2009 Question paper
KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN
Time: 3 Hours M.M. 100
NOTE: Attempt all questions. All questions carry equal marks. The use of electronic devices are strictly prohibited.
1. Consider the following multiplication in decimal notations (999).(abc)= def132, determine the digits a,b,c,d,e,f.
2. Find the greatest number of 4 digits, which when divided by 3,5,7, and 9 leaves remainder 1,3,5 and 7 respectively.
3. If n is a positive integer such that n/810 = 0d25d25
where d is a single digit in decimal base. Find 'n'.
4. Solve in integers: 3x2-3xy + y2=7 and 2x2- 3xy + 2y2 = 14
5. Let x be the LCM of 32002 – 1 and 32002 + 1. Find the last digit of x.
6. Let f0(x)=1/1-x and fn(x)= f0(fn-1-(x)) Where n= 1,2,3…. Calculate f2009(2009)
7. Triangles ABC and DAG are two isosceles triangles with BAC = 20° and ADC= 100°. Show that AB = BC + CD.
8. Two intersecting circles E1 and E2 have a common tangent which touches E1 at P and E2 at Q. These two circles meet at M and N where N is nearer to PQ than M. The line PN meets the circle E2 again at R. Prove that MQ bisects angle PMR.
9. AB is a line segment of length 24 cm. and C is its middle point. On AB, AC and CB semi circles are described. Determine the radius of the circle which touches all the three semi circles.
10. Prove that a4 + b4+ c4 >= abc( a + b + c)
Time: 3 Hours M.M. 100
NOTE: Attempt all questions. All questions carry equal marks. The use of electronic devices are strictly prohibited.
1. Consider the following multiplication in decimal notations (999).(abc)= def132, determine the digits a,b,c,d,e,f.
2. Find the greatest number of 4 digits, which when divided by 3,5,7, and 9 leaves remainder 1,3,5 and 7 respectively.
3. If n is a positive integer such that n/810 = 0d25d25
where d is a single digit in decimal base. Find 'n'.
4. Solve in integers: 3x2-3xy + y2=7 and 2x2- 3xy + 2y2 = 14
5. Let x be the LCM of 32002 – 1 and 32002 + 1. Find the last digit of x.
6. Let f0(x)=1/1-x and fn(x)= f0(fn-1-(x)) Where n= 1,2,3…. Calculate f2009(2009)
7. Triangles ABC and DAG are two isosceles triangles with BAC = 20° and ADC= 100°. Show that AB = BC + CD.
8. Two intersecting circles E1 and E2 have a common tangent which touches E1 at P and E2 at Q. These two circles meet at M and N where N is nearer to PQ than M. The line PN meets the circle E2 again at R. Prove that MQ bisects angle PMR.
9. AB is a line segment of length 24 cm. and C is its middle point. On AB, AC and CB semi circles are described. Determine the radius of the circle which touches all the three semi circles.
10. Prove that a4 + b4+ c4 >= abc( a + b + c)
National Science Olympiad Paper Class X 2010 Question paper
MENTAL ABILITY
1. In an office with 21 staff members, 1/3 are men and 2/3 are women. To obtain a staff in which 1/4 are men, how many women should be hired?
(A) 7
(B) 5
(C) 3
(D) 2
2. A jogger desires to run a certain course in 1/4 less time than she usually takes; by what percent must she increase her average running speed to accomplish this goal?
(A) 20%
(B) 25%
(C) 33 1/3
(D) 50%.
3. A salesman makes a commission of x percent on the first Rs. 2,000 worth of sale in any given month and y percent on all further sales during that month. If he makes Rs. 700 from Rs. 4,000 of sales in October and he makes Rs. 900 from Rs. 5,000 of sales in November, what is the value of x ?
(A) 2%
(B) 5%
(C) 10%
(D) 15%.
4. A magician wants to ship a magic wand to the location of his next show. The rectangular box he has available for this purpose measures 6 inches wide by 8 inches long by 10 inches high. What is the longest cylindrical wand of negligible diameter that can be shipped in this box?
(A) 10 inches
(B) 8 2 inches
(C) 8 3 inches
(D) 10 2 inches
5. The price of sugar increased 20 percent in 2000 and 10 percent in 2001. By approximately what percent would the price at the end of 2001 have to be decreased to restore the price of the sugar to its pre 2000 price?
(A) 40%
(B) 35%
(C) 30%
(D) 24%.
SCIENCE :
6. If the Moon were twice as massive as it is now, and it has stayed in the same orbital radius about the Earth as it has now, its new orbital period (in terms of its current orbital period T ) would be,
(A) T
(B) T/2
(C) T/4
(D) 2T
7. A virtual image is formed by a concave mirror when object is placed
(A) Between focus and centre of curvature
(B) Beyond C
(C) At infinity
(D) Behind the mirror
8. No heat loss occurs during flow of charge in super conductors because
(A) Speed of charge is slow in it
(C) It offers zero resistance
(B) It is bad conductor of heat
(D) It generates very small voltage
9. How do we know that fission isn't responsible for the sun's energy ?
(A) Fission doesn't produce enough energy per gram of fuel
(B) If fission were going on in the sun, the sun would explode
(C) If fission were going on in the sun, the sun's mass would increase
(D) There isn't very much fissionable material in the sun.
10. Which of the following groups of instruments is required to have communication line between two television relay centres ?
(A) Microwave link, booster relay, satellite
(B) Radio telescope, microwave link, booster relay, telephone
(C) Microwave link, telephone, booster relay, satellite
(D) All of these
11. In a circular coil of wire if the current is flowing in the anticlockwise direction,
the face will be north pole. When there is no current in the coil, if the north pole is brought near the coil, during that time, the current induced in the coil will be
(A) Clockwise
(B) Anticlockwise
(C) The current will be in the same direction whether the north pole is brought near or taken away
(D) (A) and (C) are correct
12. During calcination of the ore
(A) The lower oxides are converted into higher oxides
(B) The metal gets oxidised to its highest oxide
(C) Volatile impurities are expelled
(D) Sulphur present in the ore is converted into SO 2
13. Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding iron?
GNS
(A) It is hard and brittle.
(C) It cannot be welded.
(B) It can be tempered.
(D) It contains 4 5% of carbon
14. Heating of rubber with sulphur is known as
(A) Galvanisation
(C) Vulcanisation
15. The gas evolved in Bhopal tragedy was
(B) Sulphonation
(D) Bessemerisation
(A) CO
(B) CO 2
(C) Methyl isocyanate
(D) N 2
16. Which of the following gases forms a stable complex compound (leading to death) with haemoglobin of the human blood ?
(A) Oxygen
(C) Carbon monoxide
(B) Carbon dioxide
(D) Nitrogen
17. When copper is heated with concentrated H SO 4 the products obtained are
(A) CuSO 4 + H 2
(C) CuSO 4 + SO 2 + H 2 O
(B) CuSO 4 + SO 2 +H 2
(D) CuO + SO 3 + H 2
18. Lathyrism due to consumption of khesari dal is characterised by
(A) Skeletal deformation and thinning of collagen fibres
(B) Skeletal deformities, diabetes mellitus and reproductive failure
(C) Retarded growth, precocious puberty and renal dysfunction
(D) Cardiovascular abnormalities, mental retardation and delayed puberty.
19. Which one yields more energy?
(A) Direct burning of cowdung
(B) Burning of biogas derived from cowdung
(C) Burning of manure derived from cowdung
(D) Burning of semidecayed cowdung
20. Mark the incorrect match.
Nutrient
(A) Iron
(B) Vitamin B 1
(C) Vitamin B 4
(D) Vitamin C
Deficiency
Anaemia
Beri beri
Pellagra
Scurvy
Symptom
Deficiency of haemoglobin in R.B.C.
Water logging of the tissue, paralysis
Pigeon chest, loss of teeth
Loosening of teeth, swelling and bleeding of gums
1. In an office with 21 staff members, 1/3 are men and 2/3 are women. To obtain a staff in which 1/4 are men, how many women should be hired?
(A) 7
(B) 5
(C) 3
(D) 2
2. A jogger desires to run a certain course in 1/4 less time than she usually takes; by what percent must she increase her average running speed to accomplish this goal?
(A) 20%
(B) 25%
(C) 33 1/3
(D) 50%.
3. A salesman makes a commission of x percent on the first Rs. 2,000 worth of sale in any given month and y percent on all further sales during that month. If he makes Rs. 700 from Rs. 4,000 of sales in October and he makes Rs. 900 from Rs. 5,000 of sales in November, what is the value of x ?
(A) 2%
(B) 5%
(C) 10%
(D) 15%.
4. A magician wants to ship a magic wand to the location of his next show. The rectangular box he has available for this purpose measures 6 inches wide by 8 inches long by 10 inches high. What is the longest cylindrical wand of negligible diameter that can be shipped in this box?
(A) 10 inches
(B) 8 2 inches
(C) 8 3 inches
(D) 10 2 inches
5. The price of sugar increased 20 percent in 2000 and 10 percent in 2001. By approximately what percent would the price at the end of 2001 have to be decreased to restore the price of the sugar to its pre 2000 price?
(A) 40%
(B) 35%
(C) 30%
(D) 24%.
SCIENCE :
6. If the Moon were twice as massive as it is now, and it has stayed in the same orbital radius about the Earth as it has now, its new orbital period (in terms of its current orbital period T ) would be,
(A) T
(B) T/2
(C) T/4
(D) 2T
7. A virtual image is formed by a concave mirror when object is placed
(A) Between focus and centre of curvature
(B) Beyond C
(C) At infinity
(D) Behind the mirror
8. No heat loss occurs during flow of charge in super conductors because
(A) Speed of charge is slow in it
(C) It offers zero resistance
(B) It is bad conductor of heat
(D) It generates very small voltage
9. How do we know that fission isn't responsible for the sun's energy ?
(A) Fission doesn't produce enough energy per gram of fuel
(B) If fission were going on in the sun, the sun would explode
(C) If fission were going on in the sun, the sun's mass would increase
(D) There isn't very much fissionable material in the sun.
10. Which of the following groups of instruments is required to have communication line between two television relay centres ?
(A) Microwave link, booster relay, satellite
(B) Radio telescope, microwave link, booster relay, telephone
(C) Microwave link, telephone, booster relay, satellite
(D) All of these
11. In a circular coil of wire if the current is flowing in the anticlockwise direction,
the face will be north pole. When there is no current in the coil, if the north pole is brought near the coil, during that time, the current induced in the coil will be
(A) Clockwise
(B) Anticlockwise
(C) The current will be in the same direction whether the north pole is brought near or taken away
(D) (A) and (C) are correct
12. During calcination of the ore
(A) The lower oxides are converted into higher oxides
(B) The metal gets oxidised to its highest oxide
(C) Volatile impurities are expelled
(D) Sulphur present in the ore is converted into SO 2
13. Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding iron?
GNS
(A) It is hard and brittle.
(C) It cannot be welded.
(B) It can be tempered.
(D) It contains 4 5% of carbon
14. Heating of rubber with sulphur is known as
(A) Galvanisation
(C) Vulcanisation
15. The gas evolved in Bhopal tragedy was
(B) Sulphonation
(D) Bessemerisation
(A) CO
(B) CO 2
(C) Methyl isocyanate
(D) N 2
16. Which of the following gases forms a stable complex compound (leading to death) with haemoglobin of the human blood ?
(A) Oxygen
(C) Carbon monoxide
(B) Carbon dioxide
(D) Nitrogen
17. When copper is heated with concentrated H SO 4 the products obtained are
(A) CuSO 4 + H 2
(C) CuSO 4 + SO 2 + H 2 O
(B) CuSO 4 + SO 2 +H 2
(D) CuO + SO 3 + H 2
18. Lathyrism due to consumption of khesari dal is characterised by
(A) Skeletal deformation and thinning of collagen fibres
(B) Skeletal deformities, diabetes mellitus and reproductive failure
(C) Retarded growth, precocious puberty and renal dysfunction
(D) Cardiovascular abnormalities, mental retardation and delayed puberty.
19. Which one yields more energy?
(A) Direct burning of cowdung
(B) Burning of biogas derived from cowdung
(C) Burning of manure derived from cowdung
(D) Burning of semidecayed cowdung
20. Mark the incorrect match.
Nutrient
(A) Iron
(B) Vitamin B 1
(C) Vitamin B 4
(D) Vitamin C
Deficiency
Anaemia
Beri beri
Pellagra
Scurvy
Symptom
Deficiency of haemoglobin in R.B.C.
Water logging of the tissue, paralysis
Pigeon chest, loss of teeth
Loosening of teeth, swelling and bleeding of gums
JAWAHARLAL NEHRU TECHNOLOGICAL UNIVERSITY HYDERABAD MBA-III Semester Supplementary Examinations July/August 2010 DATA WAREHOUSING & DATA MINING Question paper
Code No: 313
Time: 3hours
Max.Marks:60
Answer any Five questions
All questions carry equal Marks
1. Explain about the relationship between Data, Information and Knowledge.
2. a) Differentiate between Various Data Access Methods.
b) Draw the Diagram showing the Components of DBMS.
3. a) Explain about the Advantages of Database planning?
b) Explain about the Reports delivered to Senior Management?
4. Explain about the Separation of Logical and Physical Data Representation.
5. Explain the data mart. Also discuss independent and dependent data marts.
6. Given an example of a situation where data transformation would be necessary in preparing data to be loaded into a data warehouse database.
7. Explain in detail any two available OLAP tools.
8. Differentiate the data driven approach and the application driven approach with respect to its advantages and disadvantage to data warehouse development.
Time: 3hours
Max.Marks:60
Answer any Five questions
All questions carry equal Marks
1. Explain about the relationship between Data, Information and Knowledge.
2. a) Differentiate between Various Data Access Methods.
b) Draw the Diagram showing the Components of DBMS.
3. a) Explain about the Advantages of Database planning?
b) Explain about the Reports delivered to Senior Management?
4. Explain about the Separation of Logical and Physical Data Representation.
5. Explain the data mart. Also discuss independent and dependent data marts.
6. Given an example of a situation where data transformation would be necessary in preparing data to be loaded into a data warehouse database.
7. Explain in detail any two available OLAP tools.
8. Differentiate the data driven approach and the application driven approach with respect to its advantages and disadvantage to data warehouse development.
JAWAHARLAL NEHRU TECHNOLOGICAL UNIVERSITY HYDERABAD MBA-III Semester Supplementary Examinations July/August 2010 FINANCIAL INSTITUTIONS AND SERVICES (FINANCE) Question paper
Code No: 36
Time: 3hours
Max.Marks:60
Answer any Five questions
All questions carry equal Marks
1. Explain the characteristics of financial market and also state the functions of
financial markets.
2. Discuss the schemes launched by Industrial Development Bank of India to assist business enterprises.
3. “There is an unhealthy competition between Banks in private sector and Public sector”. Discuss.
4. Discuss the controls excursed by Reserve Bank of India on Non-Banking Financial Institutions (NBFI’s)
5. What are the legal basis for declaration of Bonus and Investment of Life Insurance Funds?
6. Briefly explain the important provisions of the Hire Purchase Act of 1972.
7. Discuss the Inspection Procedure and default by Merchant Bankers.
8. What are the conditions to be complied by any Listed Company while making issue of debt securities?
Time: 3hours
Max.Marks:60
Answer any Five questions
All questions carry equal Marks
1. Explain the characteristics of financial market and also state the functions of
financial markets.
2. Discuss the schemes launched by Industrial Development Bank of India to assist business enterprises.
3. “There is an unhealthy competition between Banks in private sector and Public sector”. Discuss.
4. Discuss the controls excursed by Reserve Bank of India on Non-Banking Financial Institutions (NBFI’s)
5. What are the legal basis for declaration of Bonus and Investment of Life Insurance Funds?
6. Briefly explain the important provisions of the Hire Purchase Act of 1972.
7. Discuss the Inspection Procedure and default by Merchant Bankers.
8. What are the conditions to be complied by any Listed Company while making issue of debt securities?
JAWAHARLAL NEHRU TECHNOLOGICAL UNIVERSITY HYDERABAD MBA-III Semester Supplementary Examinations July 2010 LOGISTICS & SUPPLY CHAIN MANAGEMENT Question paper
Code No: 32
Time: 3hours
Max.Marks:60
Answer any Five questions
All questions carry equal Marks
1. What is supply chain management? Contrast it with business logistics management.
2. Discuss various steps involved in the process of customer service strategic management.
3. Discuss and elaborate the various components of logistics management along with their significant roles.
4. Describe the response time indicators of logistics performance.
5. What do you mean by Economics of Distribution? Explain about European Distribution Centers?
6. What is ‘Quantity Flexibility Contracts’? How is it different from Returns Contract?
7. As a manager what points you would observe while making decisions regarding supply chain information technology?
8. Describe different global issues influencing Supply Chain Management?
Time: 3hours
Max.Marks:60
Answer any Five questions
All questions carry equal Marks
1. What is supply chain management? Contrast it with business logistics management.
2. Discuss various steps involved in the process of customer service strategic management.
3. Discuss and elaborate the various components of logistics management along with their significant roles.
4. Describe the response time indicators of logistics performance.
5. What do you mean by Economics of Distribution? Explain about European Distribution Centers?
6. What is ‘Quantity Flexibility Contracts’? How is it different from Returns Contract?
7. As a manager what points you would observe while making decisions regarding supply chain information technology?
8. Describe different global issues influencing Supply Chain Management?
JAWAHARLAL NEHRU TECHNOLOGICAL UNIVERSITY HYDERABAD MBA-III Semester Supplementary Examinations July 2010 ENTERPRISE RESOURCE PLANNING Question paper
Code No: 34
Time: 3hours
Max.Marks:60
Answer any Five questions
All questions carry equal Marks
1. (a) What are the advantages of Enterprise Resource Planning
(b) Why is integrated data model considered the heart of an ERP system? Explain
2. What are the practical difficulties faced in generating all the material requisites through ERP? How should one overcome these problems?
3. How to achieve reduction of lead time and reduction in cycle time with the implementation of Enterprise Resource Planning.
4. (a) What do you mean by optimal means of developing an Enterprise Resource Planning
(b) Explain Enterprise Resource Planning proposal evaluation system.
5. (a) What are the steps involved in Enterprise Resource Planning implementation? Is
Enterprise Resource Planning implementation same as ERP package implementation?
Give reasons for your answer.
(b) When it can be said that Enterprise Resource Planning implementation is over?
What is to be done during post implementation phase?
6. Explain the following Enterprise Resource Planning business modules
(a) Materials management
(b) Quality management
7. Enumerate various modules available in the following Enterprise Resource Planning products.
(a) Oracle Corporation
(b) Baan Company
8. Illustrate the following with respect to future directions in Enterprise Resource Planning
(a) New markets
(b) New Technologies
Time: 3hours
Max.Marks:60
Answer any Five questions
All questions carry equal Marks
1. (a) What are the advantages of Enterprise Resource Planning
(b) Why is integrated data model considered the heart of an ERP system? Explain
2. What are the practical difficulties faced in generating all the material requisites through ERP? How should one overcome these problems?
3. How to achieve reduction of lead time and reduction in cycle time with the implementation of Enterprise Resource Planning.
4. (a) What do you mean by optimal means of developing an Enterprise Resource Planning
(b) Explain Enterprise Resource Planning proposal evaluation system.
5. (a) What are the steps involved in Enterprise Resource Planning implementation? Is
Enterprise Resource Planning implementation same as ERP package implementation?
Give reasons for your answer.
(b) When it can be said that Enterprise Resource Planning implementation is over?
What is to be done during post implementation phase?
6. Explain the following Enterprise Resource Planning business modules
(a) Materials management
(b) Quality management
7. Enumerate various modules available in the following Enterprise Resource Planning products.
(a) Oracle Corporation
(b) Baan Company
8. Illustrate the following with respect to future directions in Enterprise Resource Planning
(a) New markets
(b) New Technologies
JAWAHARLAL NEHRU TECHNOLOGICAL UNIVERSITY HYDERABAD MBA-II Semester Regular Examinations July/August 2010 MANAGEMENT INFORMATION SYSTEMS Question paper
Code No: 27
Time: 3hours
Answer any Five questions
All questions carry equal Marks
1. a) Explain how the MIS function grows in an organization.
b) Write short Notes on any TWO of the following:
i) Application Packages
ii) Outsourcing
iii) Prototype.
2. Explain briefly system development life cycle.
3. How much importance should be accorded to Implementation phase as a part of the total MIS development activity? Explain.
4. What is a Malware? Distinguish between Virus, Worm, Trojan Horse and Spy ware.
5. Explain Disaster Recovery Planning and Business Continuity Planning.
6. Discuss the working of a typical manufacturing organization. Is it fundamentally different from a service organization? Compare and contrast.
7. a) Explain briefly any four modules of ERP
b) What are the four benefits of ERP? Discuss
8. Give a case study of your choice and explain what the problem was and what the solution was before and after implementing ERP.
Time: 3hours
Answer any Five questions
All questions carry equal Marks
1. a) Explain how the MIS function grows in an organization.
b) Write short Notes on any TWO of the following:
i) Application Packages
ii) Outsourcing
iii) Prototype.
2. Explain briefly system development life cycle.
3. How much importance should be accorded to Implementation phase as a part of the total MIS development activity? Explain.
4. What is a Malware? Distinguish between Virus, Worm, Trojan Horse and Spy ware.
5. Explain Disaster Recovery Planning and Business Continuity Planning.
6. Discuss the working of a typical manufacturing organization. Is it fundamentally different from a service organization? Compare and contrast.
7. a) Explain briefly any four modules of ERP
b) What are the four benefits of ERP? Discuss
8. Give a case study of your choice and explain what the problem was and what the solution was before and after implementing ERP.
JAWAHARLAL NEHRU TECHNOLOGICAL UNIVERSITY HYDERABAD MBA-II Semester Regular Examinations July 2010 MARKETING MANAGEMENT Question paper
Code No: 21
Time: 3hours
Max.Marks:60
Answer any Five questions
All questions carry equal Marks
1. What are the approaches to scan the marketing environment? In case of a textile company on what environmental factors does a marketing manager can exercise control?
2. a) Distinguish marketing concept and product concept with examples.
b) Explain the term “Green marketing for Green life”? What are the constraints?
3. Describe different types of Marketing Research and indicate when each should be used?
4. Explain different types of pricing strategies followed by companies? Discuss with the example of cell phone network operators?
5. Explain the importance of E-commerce in marketing with example of banking products? Discuss the pros and cons in this regard?
6. Explain the following with examples.
A) Mass marketing
B) Marketing communication
C) Segmentation
7. Distinguish between direct marketing and internet marketing? In the present fast running world which technique is best and why?
8. Define rural marketing? Explain rural consumer behavior with the example of Insurance policies/products?
Time: 3hours
Max.Marks:60
Answer any Five questions
All questions carry equal Marks
1. What are the approaches to scan the marketing environment? In case of a textile company on what environmental factors does a marketing manager can exercise control?
2. a) Distinguish marketing concept and product concept with examples.
b) Explain the term “Green marketing for Green life”? What are the constraints?
3. Describe different types of Marketing Research and indicate when each should be used?
4. Explain different types of pricing strategies followed by companies? Discuss with the example of cell phone network operators?
5. Explain the importance of E-commerce in marketing with example of banking products? Discuss the pros and cons in this regard?
6. Explain the following with examples.
A) Mass marketing
B) Marketing communication
C) Segmentation
7. Distinguish between direct marketing and internet marketing? In the present fast running world which technique is best and why?
8. Define rural marketing? Explain rural consumer behavior with the example of Insurance policies/products?
JAWAHARLAL NEHRU TECHNOLOGICAL UNIVERSITY HYDERABAD MBA-II Semester Regular Examinations July 2010 HUMAN RESOURCE MANAGEMENT Question paper
Code No: 23
Time: 3hours
Max.Marks:60
Answer any Five questions
All questions carry equal Marks
1. Write job description and job specification of a sales executive for an FMCG
company. Explain with examples job enlargement and job enrichment.
2. What are the contents of HRIS? Explain the process of manpower planning? What
are its advantages and disadvantages?
3. Distinguish recruitment and selection? What are the merits and demerits of
realistic job previews and application blanks?
4. What are the reasons for interviewer bias and errors? Explain the salient features
of designing and conducting effective interviews.
5. Explain the role of appraisal in managing performance. What are the potential
problems in performance evaluations?
6. Explain in basket training method. When is it used? How do you evaluate
training and development of employees?
7. Explain factor comparison method with an example. How compensation for
special groups is handled? What are the problems?
8. Explain the machinery for settlement of grievances according to Industrial
Disputes Act. Discuss the need for maintenance of HR during recession.
Time: 3hours
Max.Marks:60
Answer any Five questions
All questions carry equal Marks
1. Write job description and job specification of a sales executive for an FMCG
company. Explain with examples job enlargement and job enrichment.
2. What are the contents of HRIS? Explain the process of manpower planning? What
are its advantages and disadvantages?
3. Distinguish recruitment and selection? What are the merits and demerits of
realistic job previews and application blanks?
4. What are the reasons for interviewer bias and errors? Explain the salient features
of designing and conducting effective interviews.
5. Explain the role of appraisal in managing performance. What are the potential
problems in performance evaluations?
6. Explain in basket training method. When is it used? How do you evaluate
training and development of employees?
7. Explain factor comparison method with an example. How compensation for
special groups is handled? What are the problems?
8. Explain the machinery for settlement of grievances according to Industrial
Disputes Act. Discuss the need for maintenance of HR during recession.
JAWAHARLAL NEHRU TECHNOLOGICAL UNIVERSITY HYDERABAD MBA-II Semester Regular Examinations July 2010 BUSINESS ENVIRONMENT Question paper
Code No:22
Time: 3hours
Max.Marks:60
Answer any Five questions
All questions carry equal Marks
1. Explain the genesis of New Economic Policy 19191 in detail.
2. What is the Government of India Policy on foreign direct investment?
3. What are the objectives of monetary and credit policy of Government of India for the year 2010-11?
4. Explain the salient features of India’s Trade policy for the current year.
5. How do you correct the imbalances of Balance of Payments? Illustrate.
6. Explain the organization structure of World Trade Organization. Present a critical review of WTO functioning.
7. Explain the features and structure of money markets in India. What are the reforms suggested for improving the quality of money market operations in India?
Illustrate.
8. Write short notes on any TWO of the following:
a) Policy on Public Private Partnerships.
b) Role and functions of finance Commission
c) Role of EXIM bank
d) SEBI and Investor Protection.
Time: 3hours
Max.Marks:60
Answer any Five questions
All questions carry equal Marks
1. Explain the genesis of New Economic Policy 19191 in detail.
2. What is the Government of India Policy on foreign direct investment?
3. What are the objectives of monetary and credit policy of Government of India for the year 2010-11?
4. Explain the salient features of India’s Trade policy for the current year.
5. How do you correct the imbalances of Balance of Payments? Illustrate.
6. Explain the organization structure of World Trade Organization. Present a critical review of WTO functioning.
7. Explain the features and structure of money markets in India. What are the reforms suggested for improving the quality of money market operations in India?
Illustrate.
8. Write short notes on any TWO of the following:
a) Policy on Public Private Partnerships.
b) Role and functions of finance Commission
c) Role of EXIM bank
d) SEBI and Investor Protection.
JAWAHARLAL NEHRU TECHNOLOGICAL UNIVERSITY HYDERABAD MBA-I SemesterSupplementary Examinations July 2010 MANAGEMENT THEORY AND PRACTIC Question paper
Code No:11001
Time: 3hours
Max.Marks:60
Answer any Five questions
All questions carry equal Marks
1. Comment on different roles a dynamic professional manager has to play to active institutional objectives.
2. What are human relations and discuss the contributions and major concepts in human relations.
3. What are the good objectives of a good plan? How far managers at different levels contribute for the fulfillment of the objectives.
4. What are the major approaches to problem solving and how do modern managers follow them in the process of decision making?
5. Discuss the merits and demerits of flat and tall organization structures. How does span of control affect the nature of organization?
6. Discuss the role and importance of monetary rewards or incentives in motivation.
7. Contrast high and low context cultures. What do these differences mean for communication?
8. Why do most controls of overall performance tend to be financial? Should they be? What else would you suggest?
Time: 3hours
Max.Marks:60
Answer any Five questions
All questions carry equal Marks
1. Comment on different roles a dynamic professional manager has to play to active institutional objectives.
2. What are human relations and discuss the contributions and major concepts in human relations.
3. What are the good objectives of a good plan? How far managers at different levels contribute for the fulfillment of the objectives.
4. What are the major approaches to problem solving and how do modern managers follow them in the process of decision making?
5. Discuss the merits and demerits of flat and tall organization structures. How does span of control affect the nature of organization?
6. Discuss the role and importance of monetary rewards or incentives in motivation.
7. Contrast high and low context cultures. What do these differences mean for communication?
8. Why do most controls of overall performance tend to be financial? Should they be? What else would you suggest?
JAWAHARLAL NEHRU TECHNOLOGICAL UNIVERSITY HYDERABAD MBA-I Semester Supplementary Examinations July/August 2010 BUSINESS ENVIRONMENT Question paper
Code No:11007
Time: 3hours
Max.Marks:60
Answer any Five questions
All questions carry equal Marks
1. Explain the changes in IPR 1956 over the IPR-1948. Do you think that the change is on for better?
2. What are the canons of public expenditure? How can public expenditure increase social welfare?
3. “The Current Credit Policy is highly conducive for fast Economic growth in the country”. Comment.
4. What are the policy options required to correct the disequilibrium in the BOPs account?
5. How far the new EXIM policy contributes to the promotion of international trade?
6. WTO rules make life easier for all. Do you agree with the statement? Why?
7. What are the reform measures to strengthen the Indian Money Market?
8. What is the role of consumer Protection councils in protecting the consumers against exploitation?
Time: 3hours
Max.Marks:60
Answer any Five questions
All questions carry equal Marks
1. Explain the changes in IPR 1956 over the IPR-1948. Do you think that the change is on for better?
2. What are the canons of public expenditure? How can public expenditure increase social welfare?
3. “The Current Credit Policy is highly conducive for fast Economic growth in the country”. Comment.
4. What are the policy options required to correct the disequilibrium in the BOPs account?
5. How far the new EXIM policy contributes to the promotion of international trade?
6. WTO rules make life easier for all. Do you agree with the statement? Why?
7. What are the reform measures to strengthen the Indian Money Market?
8. What is the role of consumer Protection councils in protecting the consumers against exploitation?
JAWAHARLAL NEHRU TECHNOLOGICAL UNIVERSITY HYDERABAD MBA-I Semester Supplementary Examinations July 2010 RESEARCH METHODOLOGY AND STATISTICAL TOOLS Question paper
Code No:21003
Time: 3hours
Max.Marks:60
Answer any Five questions
All questions carry equal Marks
1. What is pure research and what is applied research? How do they complement and differ from each other?
2. What are the various methods of collecting primary data? What are the advantages and disadvantages associated with each?
3. What is the concept of reliability and validity of a scale? What other criteria the
scale should fulfill?
4. What are the requirements of a good average? Compare the mean, mode and the
median in the light of these requirements.
5. Determine the least square regression line of
(a) y on x
(b) x on y
(c) Find the correlation coefficient r using the regression coefficients
(d) Find y(8)
(e) Find x(16).
6. A random sample of 10 boys had the following I.Q’s
70, 120, 110, 101, 88, 83, 95, 98, 107 and 100.
Does this data support the assumption of a population mean I.Q of 100.
7. The western natural Gas Company has supplied 18,20,21,25 and 26 billion cubic feet of gas, respectively, for the years 1988 to 1992.
a) Find the linear estimation equation that best describes these data.
b) Calculate the percent of trend for these data.
c) Calculate the relative cyclical residual for these data.
d) In which years does the largest fluctuation from trend occur, and is it the same for both methods.
8. ‘Research Report is the culmination of social science research’. Comment on the statement underlining the primary nature of research report.
Time: 3hours
Max.Marks:60
Answer any Five questions
All questions carry equal Marks
1. What is pure research and what is applied research? How do they complement and differ from each other?
2. What are the various methods of collecting primary data? What are the advantages and disadvantages associated with each?
3. What is the concept of reliability and validity of a scale? What other criteria the
scale should fulfill?
4. What are the requirements of a good average? Compare the mean, mode and the
median in the light of these requirements.
5. Determine the least square regression line of
(a) y on x
(b) x on y
(c) Find the correlation coefficient r using the regression coefficients
(d) Find y(8)
(e) Find x(16).
6. A random sample of 10 boys had the following I.Q’s
70, 120, 110, 101, 88, 83, 95, 98, 107 and 100.
Does this data support the assumption of a population mean I.Q of 100.
7. The western natural Gas Company has supplied 18,20,21,25 and 26 billion cubic feet of gas, respectively, for the years 1988 to 1992.
a) Find the linear estimation equation that best describes these data.
b) Calculate the percent of trend for these data.
c) Calculate the relative cyclical residual for these data.
d) In which years does the largest fluctuation from trend occur, and is it the same for both methods.
8. ‘Research Report is the culmination of social science research’. Comment on the statement underlining the primary nature of research report.
JAWAHARLAL NEHRU TECHNOLOGICAL UNIVERSITY HYDERABAD MBA-I Semester Supplementary Examinations July 2010 MANAGERIAL ECONOMICS Question paper
Code No:11002
Time: 3hours
Max.Marks:60
Answer any Five questions
All questions carry equal Marks
1. What is marketing? Distinguish between ‘market and marketing’.
2. Explain the equilibrium of a firm through MR = MC approach.
3. Define economics and distinguish carefully between ‘positive economics’ and ‘welfare economics’.
4. What is elasticity of demand? What are the different kinds of elasticity?
5. What are the Iso-cost curves? State how they are differently addressed? Mention, briefly, about their application.
6. Differentiate between TC, TVC and TFC with the help of examples and diagrams.
7. What are difficulties of building a general theory of Oligopoly? Why does oligopoly emerge in various industries?
8. Examine defects of C-V-P as identified by Haynes, Mote and Paul.
Time: 3hours
Max.Marks:60
Answer any Five questions
All questions carry equal Marks
1. What is marketing? Distinguish between ‘market and marketing’.
2. Explain the equilibrium of a firm through MR = MC approach.
3. Define economics and distinguish carefully between ‘positive economics’ and ‘welfare economics’.
4. What is elasticity of demand? What are the different kinds of elasticity?
5. What are the Iso-cost curves? State how they are differently addressed? Mention, briefly, about their application.
6. Differentiate between TC, TVC and TFC with the help of examples and diagrams.
7. What are difficulties of building a general theory of Oligopoly? Why does oligopoly emerge in various industries?
8. Examine defects of C-V-P as identified by Haynes, Mote and Paul.
JAWAHARLAL NEHRU TECHNOLOGICAL UNIVERSITY HYDERABAD MBA-I Semester Supplementary Examinations July 2010 BUSINESS LAW AND REGULATION Question paper
Code No:21005
Time: 3hours
Max.Marks:60
Answer any Five questions
All questions carry equal Marks
1. “An acceptance to be effective must be communicated to the officer” Are there any exceptions to this rule?
2. When is time deemed to be essence of the contract in the performance of contracts? Discuss.
3. What are the remedies available to the buyer when goods in wrong quantity are delivered to him?
4. “The sharing of profits is only a prime facie evidence of partnership” Examine the statement.
5. What do you mean by Indorsement? Describe the different types of indorsements under the Negotiable Instruments Act. Give examples.
6. What is a Statutory Meeting? Explain the contents of the Statutory Report. Also state the consequency of not holding a Statutory Meeting.
7. Write a detailed note on various allowances chargeable under the head “Income from Salaries”.
8. Discuss the various rules involved in interpretation of Central Excise Tariff, in detail.
Time: 3hours
Max.Marks:60
Answer any Five questions
All questions carry equal Marks
1. “An acceptance to be effective must be communicated to the officer” Are there any exceptions to this rule?
2. When is time deemed to be essence of the contract in the performance of contracts? Discuss.
3. What are the remedies available to the buyer when goods in wrong quantity are delivered to him?
4. “The sharing of profits is only a prime facie evidence of partnership” Examine the statement.
5. What do you mean by Indorsement? Describe the different types of indorsements under the Negotiable Instruments Act. Give examples.
6. What is a Statutory Meeting? Explain the contents of the Statutory Report. Also state the consequency of not holding a Statutory Meeting.
7. Write a detailed note on various allowances chargeable under the head “Income from Salaries”.
8. Discuss the various rules involved in interpretation of Central Excise Tariff, in detail.
JAWAHARLAL NEHRU TECHNOLOGICAL UNIVERSITY HYDERABAD MBA-III Semester Supplementary Examinations July/August 2010 MANAGEMENT OF INDUSTRIAL RELATIONS(HRM) Question paper
Code No: 37
Time: 3hours
Max.Marks:60
Answer any Five questions
All questions carry equal Marks
1. Discuss the recommendations of National Commission on Labour regarding Industrial Relations.
2. What is the relevance of Gandhian Approach to Industrial Relations in the present scenario?
3. What is the impact of white-collar unionism on Industrial Relations in India?
4. Describe the workers participation in Management in Indian scenario.
5. What is merit pay? Do you think it’s a good idea to award employees merit raises? Why or Why not?
6. What are the general provisions relating to the benefits of social security under the Workmen’s compensation Act in India?
7. Why has the positive approach to discipline been useful in reducing employee lawsuits?
8. Explain objectives and the role of Tripartite and Bipartite bodies. Evaluate their contribution in shaping up India Largely.
Time: 3hours
Max.Marks:60
Answer any Five questions
All questions carry equal Marks
1. Discuss the recommendations of National Commission on Labour regarding Industrial Relations.
2. What is the relevance of Gandhian Approach to Industrial Relations in the present scenario?
3. What is the impact of white-collar unionism on Industrial Relations in India?
4. Describe the workers participation in Management in Indian scenario.
5. What is merit pay? Do you think it’s a good idea to award employees merit raises? Why or Why not?
6. What are the general provisions relating to the benefits of social security under the Workmen’s compensation Act in India?
7. Why has the positive approach to discipline been useful in reducing employee lawsuits?
8. Explain objectives and the role of Tripartite and Bipartite bodies. Evaluate their contribution in shaping up India Largely.
JAWAHARLAL NEHRU TECHNOLOGICAL UNIVERSITY HYDERABAD MBA-I Semester Supplementary Examinations July 2010 FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING AND ANALYSIS Question paper
Code No: 11004
Time: 3hours
Max.Marks:60
Answer any Five questions
All questions carry equal Marks
1. Discuss briefly about the Generally Accepted Accounting Principals(GAAP)
2. Explain about various subsidiary books prepared by an organization
3. What is Goodwill? Explain about the methods of valuation of Goodwill
4. What is forfeiture and re- issue of forfeited shares? State the steps involved in
re- issue of forfeited shares.
5. Discuss about the techniques of financial statement analysis
6. The balance sheets of M & Co. and N & co. are as follows
Balance sheets as Dec 31,2009
Compare the financial position of the two companies with the help of Common
size Balance Sheet.
7. Following is the Profit and Loss account of Manyam Electricals Ltd for the year
ended 31st September,2009.
You are required to calculate ;
1. Gross profit Ratio
2. Net profit Ratio
3. Operating Ratio
4. Operating profit Ratio
5. Administrative Expenses Ratio
8. From the following Balance Sheets of Crompton Co. Ltd Prepare (a) Schedule of changes in Working Capital and (b) Funds Flow Statement
Additional information:
Depreciation of Rs. 20,000 and Rs 25,000 have been charged on plant,
land and buildings respectively in 2009.
Time: 3hours
Max.Marks:60
Answer any Five questions
All questions carry equal Marks
1. Discuss briefly about the Generally Accepted Accounting Principals(GAAP)
2. Explain about various subsidiary books prepared by an organization
3. What is Goodwill? Explain about the methods of valuation of Goodwill
4. What is forfeiture and re- issue of forfeited shares? State the steps involved in
re- issue of forfeited shares.
5. Discuss about the techniques of financial statement analysis
6. The balance sheets of M & Co. and N & co. are as follows
Balance sheets as Dec 31,2009
| Liabilities | M & Co Rs | N & Co Rs. |
| Preference share capital Equity share capital Reserves and surpluses Long term loans Bills payable | 120000 150000 14000 115000 2000 12000 15000 10000 438000 80000 334000 1000 10000 4000 1000 8000 438000 | 160000 400000 18000 130000 --- 4000 6000 90000 808000 123000 600000 40000 25000 8000 2000 10000 808000 |
Compare the financial position of the two companies with the help of Common
size Balance Sheet.
7. Following is the Profit and Loss account of Manyam Electricals Ltd for the year
ended 31st September,2009.
| To Opening stock To Purchases To Wages To Gross profit To Administrative expenses To Selling and Distribution expenses To Non operating expenses To Net Profit | 1,00,000 3,50,000 9,000 2,01,000 -------- 6,60,000 -------- 20,000 89,000 30,000 80,000 ------ 2,19,000 -------- | By Sales By Closing stock By Gross profit b/d By interest on investments(outside business) By Profit on sale of investments | 5,60,000 1,00,000 -------- 6,60,000 -------- 2,01,000 10,000 8,000 2,19,000 -------- |
You are required to calculate ;
1. Gross profit Ratio
2. Net profit Ratio
3. Operating Ratio
4. Operating profit Ratio
5. Administrative Expenses Ratio
8. From the following Balance Sheets of Crompton Co. Ltd Prepare (a) Schedule of changes in Working Capital and (b) Funds Flow Statement
| Liabilities | 31 Dec2008 | 31 Dec.2009 | Assets | 31 Dec2008 | 31 Dec.2009 |
| Capital Creditors Bills payable Profit & Loss a/c Total | 120000 37000 15000 60000 --------- 232000 | 150000 25000 17000 69000 --------- 261000 | Plant Land and Buildings Patents Cash Debtors Total | 100000 75000 7000 17000 33000 --------- 232000 | 125000 90000 9500 23000 13500 --------- 261000 |
Additional information:
Depreciation of Rs. 20,000 and Rs 25,000 have been charged on plant,
land and buildings respectively in 2009.
JAWAHARLAL NEHRU TECHNOLOGICAL UNIVERSITY HYDERABAD MBA-I Semester Supplementary Examinations July 2010 BUSINESS COMMUNICATION AND SOFT SKILLS Question paper
Time: 3hours
Max.Marks:60
Answer any Five questions
All questions carry equal Marks
Code No:11006
1. Explain the significance of grammar in making communication meaningful.
2. Describe the process of writing business messages.
3. What is public speaking? What are the barriers of effective speaking and suggest
strategies to over come the barriers?
4. ‘A substantial portion of our communication is non-verbal’ – Explain.
5. (a) Explain why communicating across cultures is important to business.
(b) Define culture and explain its effects on cross-cultural communication.
6. Describe how technology helps in the construction of business messages.
7. Write a report to Globareena Software Developers, on the feasibility of establishing a computer training institute in Assam.
8. A. Choose the substitute of the underlined phrase/ idiom.
1. I am just a small fry in the office.
(a) small creature (b) peon (c) person of little importance (d) humorous
2. Flesh and blood can bear it no longer.
(a) warning (b) human nature (c) in life (d) at the top speed
3. The leader must have the lion’s share of the booty.
(a) the worthy part (b) the stronger part (c) the smaller part (d) the larger part
4. To be fair and square pays in the long run.
(a) successful (b) worthy (c) deceitful (d) honest
5. We kept our fingers crossed till the final results were declared.
(a) waited expectantly (b) kept praying (c) kept hopeful (d) felt scared
6. There is no need to rake up an old quarrel.
(a) revive (b) start (c) end (d) forget
B Write one word substitutes for the following.
1) Fear of the closed space
2) Study of structure of words
3) One who carves in stones
4) One who does not drink wine
5) Rule by the old people
6) Study of the origin of words
C Fill in the blanks with suitable form of the verb given in brackets.
1. The train _______ (leave) the platform an hour ago.
2. They ___________ (write) an assignment at present.
3. Ravi usually ______ (read) till midnight.
4. They _________ (repair) the old bridge now.
5. He met with an accident while he ________ (cross) the road.
6. Harish _______ (finish) the work before we reached the garage.
D Complete each sentence by choosing the correct homophone.
1. Would you like a ______ (role/roll) and butter with your soup?
2. The airline's symbol was painted on the aircraft's_____ (tail/tale)
3. The pilot avoided a collision by changing______ (course/coarse) just in time.
4. I had too much to drink at Sarah's party, and I felt terrible the ______
(morning/mourning) after.
5. I slammed on the_______ (break/brake) but it was too late.
6. Don't walk around outside in your _______ (bear/bare) feet.
Max.Marks:60
Answer any Five questions
All questions carry equal Marks
Code No:11006
1. Explain the significance of grammar in making communication meaningful.
2. Describe the process of writing business messages.
3. What is public speaking? What are the barriers of effective speaking and suggest
strategies to over come the barriers?
4. ‘A substantial portion of our communication is non-verbal’ – Explain.
5. (a) Explain why communicating across cultures is important to business.
(b) Define culture and explain its effects on cross-cultural communication.
6. Describe how technology helps in the construction of business messages.
7. Write a report to Globareena Software Developers, on the feasibility of establishing a computer training institute in Assam.
8. A. Choose the substitute of the underlined phrase/ idiom.
1. I am just a small fry in the office.
(a) small creature (b) peon (c) person of little importance (d) humorous
2. Flesh and blood can bear it no longer.
(a) warning (b) human nature (c) in life (d) at the top speed
3. The leader must have the lion’s share of the booty.
(a) the worthy part (b) the stronger part (c) the smaller part (d) the larger part
4. To be fair and square pays in the long run.
(a) successful (b) worthy (c) deceitful (d) honest
5. We kept our fingers crossed till the final results were declared.
(a) waited expectantly (b) kept praying (c) kept hopeful (d) felt scared
6. There is no need to rake up an old quarrel.
(a) revive (b) start (c) end (d) forget
B Write one word substitutes for the following.
1) Fear of the closed space
2) Study of structure of words
3) One who carves in stones
4) One who does not drink wine
5) Rule by the old people
6) Study of the origin of words
C Fill in the blanks with suitable form of the verb given in brackets.
1. The train _______ (leave) the platform an hour ago.
2. They ___________ (write) an assignment at present.
3. Ravi usually ______ (read) till midnight.
4. They _________ (repair) the old bridge now.
5. He met with an accident while he ________ (cross) the road.
6. Harish _______ (finish) the work before we reached the garage.
D Complete each sentence by choosing the correct homophone.
1. Would you like a ______ (role/roll) and butter with your soup?
2. The airline's symbol was painted on the aircraft's_____ (tail/tale)
3. The pilot avoided a collision by changing______ (course/coarse) just in time.
4. I had too much to drink at Sarah's party, and I felt terrible the ______
(morning/mourning) after.
5. I slammed on the_______ (break/brake) but it was too late.
6. Don't walk around outside in your _______ (bear/bare) feet.
III Semester Diploma Examination, November 2009 E & C. Board, BASIC PROCESS INSTUMENTATION Question paper
Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 100
Instructions : 1. Section – I is compulsory
2. Answer any six full questions choosing two questions each from Section II, III and IV.
SECTION – I
1. (a) Fill in the blanks with appropriate word / words :
(i) The ___ is a curved metallic tube having an elliptical cross-section and sealed at one end.
(ii) A strain gauge is a passive transducer that converts a mechanical displacement into a change in ______
(iii) The thermistor is a short name for ____ .
(iv) Capacitive transducers are mainly used for ____ measurement.
(v) Piezo-electric transducers are ___ transducers.
(b) Explain the block diagram of Dead Weight Tester.
SECTION – II
2. (a) Explain the each block of generalized measurement system
(b) Define error and mention the types of error.
(c) Explain the static and dynamic characteristics.
3 (a) Explain zero order system with an example
(b) List the classification of electrical transducer.
(c) Explain in briefly : (i) Bellows (ii) Capsule
4. (a) Explain the working of LVDT displacement transducer.
(b) Explain the working principle of variable capacitance type displacement transducer.
(c) Define instrumentation.
SECTION – III
5. (a) Explain briefly unbounded train gauge with neat sketch.
(b) List the material used for the strain gauge.
(c) Mention the classification of electrical strain gauge.
6. (a) Explain the measurement of liquid level by capacitive probe method.
(b) What is level measurement? Explain Direct Method.
(c) What are the merits and demerits of mechanical strain gauge ?
7. (a) Explain the working of force-balance type pressure transducer with neat sketch?
(b) Explain the construction of Bourdon tube with neat sketch.
(c) Give the merits and demerits of potentiometric pressure transducer.
SECTION – IV
8. (a) Explain the principle of operation of
(i) Mechanical gauges & (ii) Optical gauges
(b) Explain the factors affecting strain measurements..
(c) Define gauge factor.
9. (a) Explain the working of optical pyrometer with neat sketch.
(b) Explain the construction of thermocouple with sketch.
(c) Explain piezoelectric pressure transducer.
10. (a) Explain the working of Radiation Pyometer with neat sketch.
(b) Explain the construction of Platinum Resistance Thermometer.
(c) Define temperature.
Instructions : 1. Section – I is compulsory
2. Answer any six full questions choosing two questions each from Section II, III and IV.
SECTION – I
1. (a) Fill in the blanks with appropriate word / words :
(i) The ___ is a curved metallic tube having an elliptical cross-section and sealed at one end.
(ii) A strain gauge is a passive transducer that converts a mechanical displacement into a change in ______
(iii) The thermistor is a short name for ____ .
(iv) Capacitive transducers are mainly used for ____ measurement.
(v) Piezo-electric transducers are ___ transducers.
(b) Explain the block diagram of Dead Weight Tester.
SECTION – II
2. (a) Explain the each block of generalized measurement system
(b) Define error and mention the types of error.
(c) Explain the static and dynamic characteristics.
3 (a) Explain zero order system with an example
(b) List the classification of electrical transducer.
(c) Explain in briefly : (i) Bellows (ii) Capsule
4. (a) Explain the working of LVDT displacement transducer.
(b) Explain the working principle of variable capacitance type displacement transducer.
(c) Define instrumentation.
SECTION – III
5. (a) Explain briefly unbounded train gauge with neat sketch.
(b) List the material used for the strain gauge.
(c) Mention the classification of electrical strain gauge.
6. (a) Explain the measurement of liquid level by capacitive probe method.
(b) What is level measurement? Explain Direct Method.
(c) What are the merits and demerits of mechanical strain gauge ?
7. (a) Explain the working of force-balance type pressure transducer with neat sketch?
(b) Explain the construction of Bourdon tube with neat sketch.
(c) Give the merits and demerits of potentiometric pressure transducer.
SECTION – IV
8. (a) Explain the principle of operation of
(i) Mechanical gauges & (ii) Optical gauges
(b) Explain the factors affecting strain measurements..
(c) Define gauge factor.
9. (a) Explain the working of optical pyrometer with neat sketch.
(b) Explain the construction of thermocouple with sketch.
(c) Explain piezoelectric pressure transducer.
10. (a) Explain the working of Radiation Pyometer with neat sketch.
(b) Explain the construction of Platinum Resistance Thermometer.
(c) Define temperature.
III SEMESTER DIPLOMA EXAMINATION 2007 E & C BOARD, ELECTRICAL MEASUREMENTS Question paper
Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 100
Instruction: (1) Section – I is compulsory.
(2) Answer six full questions choosing any two full questions each from Section II, III and IV.
SECTION – I
1. (a) Fill in the blanks with appropriate word / words :
(i) Human errors in making measurements are termed as _____
(ii) PMMC is the abbreviation for ____
(iii) _____ used for making AC measurements on high voltage lines.
(iv The range of ammeter can be extended using ____ resistance.
(v) The SI unit of power is ____ .
(b) Explain briefly primary standards of frequency.
SECTION – II
2. (a) Explain the construction of saturated Weston cell.
(b) What are the advantages of MKS system.
(c) Write the dimension of: (i) Current (ii) MMF (iii) Charge (iv) Electrical flux
3. (a) Explain briefly systematic errors.
(b) Explain with example the difference between accuracy and precision.
(c) Explain loading effect.
4. (a) Explain the method of determining series resistance in DC voltmeter with a neat diagram.
(b) State the reasons for electro magnetic damping. How is it classified?
(c) What is torque?
SECTION – III
5. (a) Enumerate various causes of failures in equipments.
(b) Write a brief note on corrective maintenance.
(c) Define failure rate with respect to instruments.
6. (a) Compare PMMC and Electro dynamometer.
(b) Explain the working of single phase watt meter.
(b) What is electrostatic instrument?
7. (a) Explain the working of attractive and repulsive type instrument with a neat diagram.
(b) What are the advantages of PMMC instruments?
(c) List the classifications of moving iron instruments.
SECTION - IV
8. (a) What are the advantages and disadvantages of hot wire instruments?
(b) Give the uses of the following electro dynamometer.
(i) Megger (ii) Watt meter
(c) Give the applications of electro dynamometer.
9. (a) Explain
(i) Current transformer (ii) Voltage transformer
(b) Explain the block diagram, method of calibration of DC ammeter.
(c) What is calibration?
10. (a) Explain what factors does mean time to repairs [MTR] depends.
(b) Distinguish between indicating and recording instruments.
(c) Define the following terms :
(i) Maintainability (ii) Reliability
Instruction: (1) Section – I is compulsory.
(2) Answer six full questions choosing any two full questions each from Section II, III and IV.
SECTION – I
1. (a) Fill in the blanks with appropriate word / words :
(i) Human errors in making measurements are termed as _____
(ii) PMMC is the abbreviation for ____
(iii) _____ used for making AC measurements on high voltage lines.
(iv The range of ammeter can be extended using ____ resistance.
(v) The SI unit of power is ____ .
(b) Explain briefly primary standards of frequency.
SECTION – II
2. (a) Explain the construction of saturated Weston cell.
(b) What are the advantages of MKS system.
(c) Write the dimension of: (i) Current (ii) MMF (iii) Charge (iv) Electrical flux
3. (a) Explain briefly systematic errors.
(b) Explain with example the difference between accuracy and precision.
(c) Explain loading effect.
4. (a) Explain the method of determining series resistance in DC voltmeter with a neat diagram.
(b) State the reasons for electro magnetic damping. How is it classified?
(c) What is torque?
SECTION – III
5. (a) Enumerate various causes of failures in equipments.
(b) Write a brief note on corrective maintenance.
(c) Define failure rate with respect to instruments.
6. (a) Compare PMMC and Electro dynamometer.
(b) Explain the working of single phase watt meter.
(b) What is electrostatic instrument?
7. (a) Explain the working of attractive and repulsive type instrument with a neat diagram.
(b) What are the advantages of PMMC instruments?
(c) List the classifications of moving iron instruments.
SECTION - IV
8. (a) What are the advantages and disadvantages of hot wire instruments?
(b) Give the uses of the following electro dynamometer.
(i) Megger (ii) Watt meter
(c) Give the applications of electro dynamometer.
9. (a) Explain
(i) Current transformer (ii) Voltage transformer
(b) Explain the block diagram, method of calibration of DC ammeter.
(c) What is calibration?
10. (a) Explain what factors does mean time to repairs [MTR] depends.
(b) Distinguish between indicating and recording instruments.
(c) Define the following terms :
(i) Maintainability (ii) Reliability
IV SEMESTER DIPLOMA EXAMINATION, MAY 2010 - I & C BOARD - MICRO CONTROLLERS AND APPLICATIONS Question paper
Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 100
Instruction : (1) Section – I is compulsory.
(2) Answer six full questions choosing any two full questions each from Section II, III and IV.
SECTION – I
1. (a) Fill in the blanks :
(i) In serial communication ______ register is used.
(ii) The call instruction is a _______ byte instruction.
(iii) CISC stands for _______ .
(iv _______ interrupt has highest priority in Intel 8085.
(v) 8051 is a ____ bit microcontroller.
(b) Explain TCON Register of 8051.
SECTION – II
2. (a) Explain with an example, the different addressing modes of 8085.
(b) Draw the pin diagram of 8085 and explain.
(c) List the instruction set of 8085.
3. (a) With a neat block diagram explain Princeton and Hardvard architecture.
(b) Explain about microcontroller memory types.
(c) Write a note on DPTR.
4. (a) With a neat block diagram explain the architecture of 8051
(b) Give the difference between microcontroller and microprocessor.
(c) List the flags of 8051.
SECTION – III
5. (a) Explain with an example about single bit instruction of 8051, and write a program to create a square wave of 50% duty cycle.
(b) Explain IE register of 8051.
(c) How do you double the band-rate of 8051.
6. (a) Define the following.
(i) Linker
(ii) Loader
(iii) Algorithm
(iv) Program
(b) Draw the architecture of 16F7H and explain about working register and memory management unit.
(b) List the applications of PIC.
7. (a) Classify instruction et of 8051 and explain with an example.
(b) Write a program to arrange the block of data in descending order.
(c) Explain about DA A instruction.
SECTION - IV
8. (a) Explain the different modes of 8255.
(b) Explain how to interface on LED to 8051 and write a programme t make LED ON & OFF continuously by giving some delay.
(c) List the features of USART.
9. (a) Explain how to interface LCD display to 8051 microcontroller.
(b) Draw the pin diagram of 8279 and explain.
(c) Draw the control word format of 8255.
10. (a) Explain how to interface steppermotor to 8051.
(b) Write a program for interfacing steppermotor to 8051.
(c) What is meant by switch debouncing ?
* * * * *
Time : 3 Hours
Max. Marks : 100
Instructions :
1. Section – I is compulsory
2. Answer any six full questions choosing two questions each from
Section II, III and IV.
SECTION – I
1. (a) Fill in the blanks with appropriate word / words :
(i) At low frequencies the detector used in AC bridges are ______ .
(ii) Digital multimeter has ____ input impedance.
(iii) The output of the inverter is connected to the load in ___ UPS.
(iv) The CRO depends on the movement of an _____ .
(v) Measurement of frequency and phase is done by using _____ produced on a screen.
(b) Explain the operation of UPS with diagram.
SECTION – II
2. (a) Derive an expression for the unknown resistance using wheat stone bridge.
(b) Explain briefly about detectors used in bridges.
(c) What are the conditions to be satisfied for balancing bridges ?
3 (a) Explain the operation of three terminal IC Regulator with Block diagram.
(b) Explain the operation of series voltage regulator using transistor.
(c) Write a note on Hot test of power supply unit.
4.(a) Explain the operation of SMPS with diagram.
(b) Explain the operation of zener diode voltage regulator.
(c) Mention the applications of Q-meter.
SECTION – III
5. (a) Explain the block diagram of Electronic multimeter.
(b) Mention the advantages of Digital multimeter over Analog multimeter.
(c) List any six specifications of DMM.
6. (a) Explain the block diagram of CRO.
(b) Explain briefly the working of vertical deflection system.
(c) Write a note on measurement of voltage using CRO.
7. (a) Explain the working of storage oscilloscope with diagram.
(b) Explain the measurement of frequency by CRO.
(c) List any three faults and remedies in the DMM.
SECTION – IV
8. (a) Explain the operation of Function generator with diagram.
(b) Explain briefly about Audio signal generator.
(c) List the differences between pulse and square wave generator.
9. (a) Explain the operation of Heterodyne wave analyzer with diagram.
(b) Explain briefly about spectrum analyzer.
(c) Write a note on trouble shooting procedure for signal generator.
10. (a) Explain the block diagram of logic pulse.
(b) Write a note on safety measures against mechanical hazards.
(c) Mention the applications of logic probe.
Instruction : (1) Section – I is compulsory.
(2) Answer six full questions choosing any two full questions each from Section II, III and IV.
SECTION – I
1. (a) Fill in the blanks :
(i) In serial communication ______ register is used.
(ii) The call instruction is a _______ byte instruction.
(iii) CISC stands for _______ .
(iv _______ interrupt has highest priority in Intel 8085.
(v) 8051 is a ____ bit microcontroller.
(b) Explain TCON Register of 8051.
SECTION – II
2. (a) Explain with an example, the different addressing modes of 8085.
(b) Draw the pin diagram of 8085 and explain.
(c) List the instruction set of 8085.
3. (a) With a neat block diagram explain Princeton and Hardvard architecture.
(b) Explain about microcontroller memory types.
(c) Write a note on DPTR.
4. (a) With a neat block diagram explain the architecture of 8051
(b) Give the difference between microcontroller and microprocessor.
(c) List the flags of 8051.
SECTION – III
5. (a) Explain with an example about single bit instruction of 8051, and write a program to create a square wave of 50% duty cycle.
(b) Explain IE register of 8051.
(c) How do you double the band-rate of 8051.
6. (a) Define the following.
(i) Linker
(ii) Loader
(iii) Algorithm
(iv) Program
(b) Draw the architecture of 16F7H and explain about working register and memory management unit.
(b) List the applications of PIC.
7. (a) Classify instruction et of 8051 and explain with an example.
(b) Write a program to arrange the block of data in descending order.
(c) Explain about DA A instruction.
SECTION - IV
8. (a) Explain the different modes of 8255.
(b) Explain how to interface on LED to 8051 and write a programme t make LED ON & OFF continuously by giving some delay.
(c) List the features of USART.
9. (a) Explain how to interface LCD display to 8051 microcontroller.
(b) Draw the pin diagram of 8279 and explain.
(c) Draw the control word format of 8255.
10. (a) Explain how to interface steppermotor to 8051.
(b) Write a program for interfacing steppermotor to 8051.
(c) What is meant by switch debouncing ?
* * * * *
Time : 3 Hours
Max. Marks : 100
Instructions :
1. Section – I is compulsory
2. Answer any six full questions choosing two questions each from
Section II, III and IV.
SECTION – I
1. (a) Fill in the blanks with appropriate word / words :
(i) At low frequencies the detector used in AC bridges are ______ .
(ii) Digital multimeter has ____ input impedance.
(iii) The output of the inverter is connected to the load in ___ UPS.
(iv) The CRO depends on the movement of an _____ .
(v) Measurement of frequency and phase is done by using _____ produced on a screen.
(b) Explain the operation of UPS with diagram.
SECTION – II
2. (a) Derive an expression for the unknown resistance using wheat stone bridge.
(b) Explain briefly about detectors used in bridges.
(c) What are the conditions to be satisfied for balancing bridges ?
3 (a) Explain the operation of three terminal IC Regulator with Block diagram.
(b) Explain the operation of series voltage regulator using transistor.
(c) Write a note on Hot test of power supply unit.
4.(a) Explain the operation of SMPS with diagram.
(b) Explain the operation of zener diode voltage regulator.
(c) Mention the applications of Q-meter.
SECTION – III
5. (a) Explain the block diagram of Electronic multimeter.
(b) Mention the advantages of Digital multimeter over Analog multimeter.
(c) List any six specifications of DMM.
6. (a) Explain the block diagram of CRO.
(b) Explain briefly the working of vertical deflection system.
(c) Write a note on measurement of voltage using CRO.
7. (a) Explain the working of storage oscilloscope with diagram.
(b) Explain the measurement of frequency by CRO.
(c) List any three faults and remedies in the DMM.
SECTION – IV
8. (a) Explain the operation of Function generator with diagram.
(b) Explain briefly about Audio signal generator.
(c) List the differences between pulse and square wave generator.
9. (a) Explain the operation of Heterodyne wave analyzer with diagram.
(b) Explain briefly about spectrum analyzer.
(c) Write a note on trouble shooting procedure for signal generator.
10. (a) Explain the block diagram of logic pulse.
(b) Write a note on safety measures against mechanical hazards.
(c) Mention the applications of logic probe.
I & C. Board - Electronic Measurements and Testing Instruments Question paper
Time : 3 Hours
Max. Marks : 100
Instructions :
1. Section – I is compulsory
2. Answer any six full questions choosing two questions each from
Section II, III and IV.
SECTION – I
1. (a) Fill in the blanks with appropriate word / words :
(i) At low frequencies the detector used in AC bridges are ______ .
(ii) Digital multimeter has ____ input impedance.
(iii) The output of the inverter is connected to the load in ___ UPS.
(iv) The CRO depends on the movement of an _____ .
(v) Measurement of frequency and phase is done by using _____ produced on a screen.
(b) Explain the operation of UPS with diagram.
SECTION – II
2. (a) Derive an expression for the unknown resistance using wheat stone bridge.
(b) Explain briefly about detectors used in bridges.
(c) What are the conditions to be satisfied for balancing bridges ?
3 (a) Explain the operation of three terminal IC Regulator with Block diagram.
(b) Explain the operation of series voltage regulator using transistor.
(c) Write a note on Hot test of power supply unit.
4.(a) Explain the operation of SMPS with diagram.
(b) Explain the operation of zener diode voltage regulator.
(c) Mention the applications of Q-meter.
SECTION – III
5. (a) Explain the block diagram of Electronic multimeter.
(b) Mention the advantages of Digital multimeter over Analog multimeter.
(c) List any six specifications of DMM.
6. (a) Explain the block diagram of CRO.
(b) Explain briefly the working of vertical deflection system.
(c) Write a note on measurement of voltage using CRO.
7. (a) Explain the working of storage oscilloscope with diagram.
(b) Explain the measurement of frequency by CRO.
(c) List any three faults and remedies in the DMM.
SECTION – IV
8. (a) Explain the operation of Function generator with diagram.
(b) Explain briefly about Audio signal generator.
(c) List the differences between pulse and square wave generator.
9. (a) Explain the operation of Heterodyne wave analyzer with diagram.
(b) Explain briefly about spectrum analyzer.
(c) Write a note on trouble shooting procedure for signal generator.
10. (a) Explain the block diagram of logic pulse.
(b) Write a note on safety measures against mechanical hazards.
(c) Mention the applications of logic probe.
Max. Marks : 100
Instructions :
1. Section – I is compulsory
2. Answer any six full questions choosing two questions each from
Section II, III and IV.
SECTION – I
1. (a) Fill in the blanks with appropriate word / words :
(i) At low frequencies the detector used in AC bridges are ______ .
(ii) Digital multimeter has ____ input impedance.
(iii) The output of the inverter is connected to the load in ___ UPS.
(iv) The CRO depends on the movement of an _____ .
(v) Measurement of frequency and phase is done by using _____ produced on a screen.
(b) Explain the operation of UPS with diagram.
SECTION – II
2. (a) Derive an expression for the unknown resistance using wheat stone bridge.
(b) Explain briefly about detectors used in bridges.
(c) What are the conditions to be satisfied for balancing bridges ?
3 (a) Explain the operation of three terminal IC Regulator with Block diagram.
(b) Explain the operation of series voltage regulator using transistor.
(c) Write a note on Hot test of power supply unit.
4.(a) Explain the operation of SMPS with diagram.
(b) Explain the operation of zener diode voltage regulator.
(c) Mention the applications of Q-meter.
SECTION – III
5. (a) Explain the block diagram of Electronic multimeter.
(b) Mention the advantages of Digital multimeter over Analog multimeter.
(c) List any six specifications of DMM.
6. (a) Explain the block diagram of CRO.
(b) Explain briefly the working of vertical deflection system.
(c) Write a note on measurement of voltage using CRO.
7. (a) Explain the working of storage oscilloscope with diagram.
(b) Explain the measurement of frequency by CRO.
(c) List any three faults and remedies in the DMM.
SECTION – IV
8. (a) Explain the operation of Function generator with diagram.
(b) Explain briefly about Audio signal generator.
(c) List the differences between pulse and square wave generator.
9. (a) Explain the operation of Heterodyne wave analyzer with diagram.
(b) Explain briefly about spectrum analyzer.
(c) Write a note on trouble shooting procedure for signal generator.
10. (a) Explain the block diagram of logic pulse.
(b) Write a note on safety measures against mechanical hazards.
(c) Mention the applications of logic probe.
Jawaharlal Nehru Technological University, Hyderabad III-I B.Pharmacy I Semester Supplementary Examinations, November 2009 Question paper
Code No : NR
PHARMACEUTICAL BIOCHEMISTRY
Time : 3 Hours Max.Marks : 80
Answer any FIVE questions.
All questions carry equal marks.
1. a) Describe the metabolism of Gluconeogenesis ?
b) What is Glycosuria. Explain it ?
2. a) Describe the metabolism of tyrosine and tryptophan.
b) Write note on Polyamines.
3. a) Describe the Cholesterol metabolism process.
b) Write short notes on Phospholipids.
4. a) Why does metabolism need enzymes ?
b) What are the various factors which affect the enzyme catalyzed reaction ?
5. a) Explain the principle and procedure for the estimation of SGPT and mention its significance
b) Write the significance of qualitative analysis of blood.
6. Explain about following tests.
• Glucose Oxidase test.
• Rothera's test.
• Hay's test.
• Fouchet's test.
7. a) What are the major functions of minerals in the body.
b) Give an account of bio-chemical role in our body.
8. a) Explain the mechanism of Oxidative phophorylation.
b) Mention the inhibitors of Oxidative phophorylation and ETC.
PHARMACEUTICAL BIOCHEMISTRY
Time : 3 Hours Max.Marks : 80
Answer any FIVE questions.
All questions carry equal marks.
1. a) Describe the metabolism of Gluconeogenesis ?
b) What is Glycosuria. Explain it ?
2. a) Describe the metabolism of tyrosine and tryptophan.
b) Write note on Polyamines.
3. a) Describe the Cholesterol metabolism process.
b) Write short notes on Phospholipids.
4. a) Why does metabolism need enzymes ?
b) What are the various factors which affect the enzyme catalyzed reaction ?
5. a) Explain the principle and procedure for the estimation of SGPT and mention its significance
b) Write the significance of qualitative analysis of blood.
6. Explain about following tests.
• Glucose Oxidase test.
• Rothera's test.
• Hay's test.
• Fouchet's test.
7. a) What are the major functions of minerals in the body.
b) Give an account of bio-chemical role in our body.
8. a) Explain the mechanism of Oxidative phophorylation.
b) Mention the inhibitors of Oxidative phophorylation and ETC.
Jawaharlal Nehru Technological University, Hyderabad II B-Pharmacy II semister examinations May 2010 Dispensing and Hospital Pharmacy Question paper
CODE NO : R7304
DISPENSING AND HOSPITAL PHARMACY-II
Time : 3 Hours Max.Marks : 80
Answer any Five questions.
All questions carry equal marks.
1 .a) Elaborate the two methods of calculation for solutions iso-osmatic with blood &
Tears with one example.
b) What is osmatic pressure and its importance in pharmaceutical preparations.
2 .a) Define Ointments, Pastes & jellies. Differentiate the three preparations.
b) Write a note on dispensing of Ointments.
3.a) What is therapeutic incompatibility? What are the types and reasons for therapeutic
Therapeutic incompatibility.
b) Write the methods to overcome therapeutic incompatibility.
4.a) Explain the method of maceration with examples.
b) Explain the following
i) Reverse percolation process
ii) Modified maceration process
5. a) What are the objectives and structural details of a hospital pharmacy?
b) What are the responsibilities of a pharmacist in a hospital and in community pharmacy.
6. a) Give a brief note on organization of a drug store and how the planning of purchase
and involuntary control is done.
b) Emphasize the functions of a drug store pharmacist.
7. a) How the dispensing of drugs is done during Off-Hours in a hospital pharmacy?
b) What is the importance of emergency boxes and night drugs cabinets in Off Hour dispensing.
8. a) What is " Pharmaceutical Data Base Packages " and how computers are useful in
Evaluating cases of drug interactions and adverse reactions.
b) Give the importance of Drug Information Services in a hospital.
DISPENSING AND HOSPITAL PHARMACY-II
Time : 3 Hours Max.Marks : 80
Answer any Five questions.
All questions carry equal marks.
1 .a) Elaborate the two methods of calculation for solutions iso-osmatic with blood &
Tears with one example.
b) What is osmatic pressure and its importance in pharmaceutical preparations.
2 .a) Define Ointments, Pastes & jellies. Differentiate the three preparations.
b) Write a note on dispensing of Ointments.
3.a) What is therapeutic incompatibility? What are the types and reasons for therapeutic
Therapeutic incompatibility.
b) Write the methods to overcome therapeutic incompatibility.
4.a) Explain the method of maceration with examples.
b) Explain the following
i) Reverse percolation process
ii) Modified maceration process
5. a) What are the objectives and structural details of a hospital pharmacy?
b) What are the responsibilities of a pharmacist in a hospital and in community pharmacy.
6. a) Give a brief note on organization of a drug store and how the planning of purchase
and involuntary control is done.
b) Emphasize the functions of a drug store pharmacist.
7. a) How the dispensing of drugs is done during Off-Hours in a hospital pharmacy?
b) What is the importance of emergency boxes and night drugs cabinets in Off Hour dispensing.
8. a) What is " Pharmaceutical Data Base Packages " and how computers are useful in
Evaluating cases of drug interactions and adverse reactions.
b) Give the importance of Drug Information Services in a hospital.
B.Pharm Jawaharlal Nehru Technological university, Hyderabad II B-Phamacy i semester November 2009 organic chemistry exam Question paper
Code No : R7-212
PHARMACEUTICAL ORGANIC CHEMISTRY-II
Time :3Hours Max.Marks:80
Answer any Five questions.
All questions carry equal marks.
1. a) Write a note on Chichibabin reaction.
b) Give the resonance structures of pyridines.
c) Explain the following reactions
i) Riemer-Tiemann reaction of pyrrole.
ii) Birch reduction of thiophene.
2. a) Give the two general methods of preparation of imidazole.
b) Write about electrophilic substitution reactions of imidazole.
3. a) Explain the following terms
i) Diasteromers
ii) Mesomers.
iii) Enantiomers.
iv) Chiral center
b) Differentiate stereo selectivity from stereo specific reaction.
4. How will you convert
a) Glucose into mannose.
b) Aldose into aldonic acid.
c) Galactose to galactidol.
d) Aldose into aldaric acid.
5. a) Define the term amino acids and classify them based on their chemical nature.
b) Describe the acid-base properties of amino acids.
6. a) Write about analysis of oils and fats.
b) Give the significance of hardening of oils and oxidation-polymerization of oils.
7. a) Explain the preparation of xanthine derivatives by Traubes method.
b) Define the following terms
i) Nucleic acids.
ii) Nucleosides.
iii) Nucleotides.
8. a) Name the reaction involved in the conversion of amide into amine and give its reaction mechanism.
b) Enlist the synthetic importance of Michael addition reaction.
PHARMACEUTICAL ORGANIC CHEMISTRY-II
Time :3Hours Max.Marks:80
Answer any Five questions.
All questions carry equal marks.
1. a) Write a note on Chichibabin reaction.
b) Give the resonance structures of pyridines.
c) Explain the following reactions
i) Riemer-Tiemann reaction of pyrrole.
ii) Birch reduction of thiophene.
2. a) Give the two general methods of preparation of imidazole.
b) Write about electrophilic substitution reactions of imidazole.
3. a) Explain the following terms
i) Diasteromers
ii) Mesomers.
iii) Enantiomers.
iv) Chiral center
b) Differentiate stereo selectivity from stereo specific reaction.
4. How will you convert
a) Glucose into mannose.
b) Aldose into aldonic acid.
c) Galactose to galactidol.
d) Aldose into aldaric acid.
5. a) Define the term amino acids and classify them based on their chemical nature.
b) Describe the acid-base properties of amino acids.
6. a) Write about analysis of oils and fats.
b) Give the significance of hardening of oils and oxidation-polymerization of oils.
7. a) Explain the preparation of xanthine derivatives by Traubes method.
b) Define the following terms
i) Nucleic acids.
ii) Nucleosides.
iii) Nucleotides.
8. a) Name the reaction involved in the conversion of amide into amine and give its reaction mechanism.
b) Enlist the synthetic importance of Michael addition reaction.
B.Pharm Jawaharlal Nehru Technological university, Hyderabad II B.Phamacy I Semester November 2009 organic Chemistry Exam Question paper
Code No : R7-212
PHARMACEUTICAL ORGANIC CHEMISTRY-II
Time :3Hours Max.Marks:80
Answer any Five questions.
All questions carry equal marks.
1. a) Write a note on Chichibabin reaction.
b) Give the resonance structures of pyridines.
c) Explain the following reactions
i) Riemer-Tiemann reaction of pyrrole.
ii) Birch reduction of thiophene.
2. a) Give the two general methods of preparation of imidazole.
b) Write about electrophilic substitution reactions of imidazole.
3. a) Explain the following terms
i) Diasteromers
ii) Mesomers.
iii) Enantiomers.
iv) Chiral center
b) Differentiate stereo selectivity from stereo specific reaction.
4. How will you convert
a) Glucose into mannose.
b) Aldose into aldonic acid.
c) Galactose to galactidol.
d) Aldose into aldaric acid.
5. a) Define the term amino acids and classify them based on their chemical nature.
b) Describe the acid-base properties of amino acids.
6. a) Write about analysis of oils and fats.
b) Give the significance of hardening of oils and oxidation-polymerization of oils.
7. a) Explain the preparation of xanthine derivatives by Traubes method.
b) Define the following terms
i) Nucleic acids.
ii) Nucleosides.
iii) Nucleotides.
8. a) Name the reaction involved in the conversion of amide into amine and give its reaction mechanism.
b) Enlist the synthetic importance of Michael addition reaction.
PHARMACEUTICAL ORGANIC CHEMISTRY-II
Time :3Hours Max.Marks:80
Answer any Five questions.
All questions carry equal marks.
1. a) Write a note on Chichibabin reaction.
b) Give the resonance structures of pyridines.
c) Explain the following reactions
i) Riemer-Tiemann reaction of pyrrole.
ii) Birch reduction of thiophene.
2. a) Give the two general methods of preparation of imidazole.
b) Write about electrophilic substitution reactions of imidazole.
3. a) Explain the following terms
i) Diasteromers
ii) Mesomers.
iii) Enantiomers.
iv) Chiral center
b) Differentiate stereo selectivity from stereo specific reaction.
4. How will you convert
a) Glucose into mannose.
b) Aldose into aldonic acid.
c) Galactose to galactidol.
d) Aldose into aldaric acid.
5. a) Define the term amino acids and classify them based on their chemical nature.
b) Describe the acid-base properties of amino acids.
6. a) Write about analysis of oils and fats.
b) Give the significance of hardening of oils and oxidation-polymerization of oils.
7. a) Explain the preparation of xanthine derivatives by Traubes method.
b) Define the following terms
i) Nucleic acids.
ii) Nucleosides.
iii) Nucleotides.
8. a) Name the reaction involved in the conversion of amide into amine and give its reaction mechanism.
b) Enlist the synthetic importance of Michael addition reaction.
Jawaharlal Nehru Technological University, Hyderabad II. B.Pharmacy I semester November 2009 PHARMACEUTICAL UNIT OPERATIONS-I November 2009 Question paper
Code No : R7-201
PHARMACEUTICAL UNIT OPERATIONS-I
Time : 3 Hours Max.Marks:80
Answer any Five questions.
All questions carry equal marks.
1. a) Write the basic laws of material balance.
b) Discuss energy balance and the laws applicable to it.
2. Explain the following
a) Venturi meter
b) Pitot tube
3. a) Write the theory of reciprocating pumps.
b) Explain the construction of reciprocating pumps.
4. a) Write about filter leaf.
b) Explain Meta filter.
5. a) Define crystallization write characteristic feature of crystals?
b) Explain different types of crystal systems.
6. a) Define humidification and dehumidification; Classify the substances based on interaction with moisture?
b) What are the applications of measurement of humidity?
7. Write notes on the following
a) Carbon
b) Graphite
c) Rubber
8. Give an account on
a) Floor plate
b) Flush covers
c) Trap doors
PHARMACEUTICAL UNIT OPERATIONS-I
Time : 3 Hours Max.Marks:80
Answer any Five questions.
All questions carry equal marks.
1. a) Write the basic laws of material balance.
b) Discuss energy balance and the laws applicable to it.
2. Explain the following
a) Venturi meter
b) Pitot tube
3. a) Write the theory of reciprocating pumps.
b) Explain the construction of reciprocating pumps.
4. a) Write about filter leaf.
b) Explain Meta filter.
5. a) Define crystallization write characteristic feature of crystals?
b) Explain different types of crystal systems.
6. a) Define humidification and dehumidification; Classify the substances based on interaction with moisture?
b) What are the applications of measurement of humidity?
7. Write notes on the following
a) Carbon
b) Graphite
c) Rubber
8. Give an account on
a) Floor plate
b) Flush covers
c) Trap doors
Jawaharlal Nehru Technological University, Hyderabad B.Tech Computer Science and Engineering 1st year Mid examination Question paper of JNTUH Question paper
1.A)What are the characteristics of a laser?
B)Write applications of laser in medical field?
2.A)Explain Ferro and peizo electricity?
3.A)What is total internal reflection?Give the structure of optical fibre?
B)Given refractive indices of core and clad are 1.54 and 1.50,what is N.A and acceptance angle?
4.What is superconductivity?Explain Type 1 and Type 2 superconductors?
5.What is a nano material?Explain briefly about Nano science and Nano technology?
B)Write applications of laser in medical field?
2.A)Explain Ferro and peizo electricity?
3.A)What is total internal reflection?Give the structure of optical fibre?
B)Given refractive indices of core and clad are 1.54 and 1.50,what is N.A and acceptance angle?
4.What is superconductivity?Explain Type 1 and Type 2 superconductors?
5.What is a nano material?Explain briefly about Nano science and Nano technology?
Jawaharlal Nehru Technological University, Hyderabad B.Tech Computer Science and Engineering 1st B.tech Regular Examinations (R09) physics Question paper
Code No:09A1bs02 Set No.1
1.a)Explain the principle behind the functioning of an optical fibre.
b)Derive an expression for numerical aperture of an optical fibre.
c)Write three applications of optical fibres.
2.a)Distinguish between intrinsic and extrinsic semiconductors.
b)Derive an expression for density of holes in valence band of an intrinsic semiconductor.
3.a)What is bonding in solids?write the list of different types of bonding in solids.
b)Describe with suitable examples the information of ionic and covalent bonds in solids.
c)What is cohesive energy of a molecule?Explain.
4.a)What is Bloch theorem?Explain.
b)Write the conclusions given by Kronig-Penny model.
c)For an electron under motion n a periodic potential,plot the curve between the effective mass of the electron and wave number,and explain.
5.a)Describe any three process by which nano materials are fabricated.
b)Describe the important applications of nanotechnology.
6.a)Define magnetic moment.What is bohr magneton?Explain.
b)What are the characteristics of diamagnetic,Paramagnetic,ferromagnetic substances?Explain their behavior with the help of examples.
c)If a magnetic field of strength 300amp/metre produces a magnetization of 400A/m in ferromagnetic material,find the relative permeability of the material.
7.a)Explain the concept of dual nature of light.
b)Describe the experimental verification of matter waves using Davisson-Germer experiment.
c)Calculate the wavelength of matter wave associated with a neutron whose K.E is 1.5times the rest mass of electron.
(Given that mass of neutron=((1.676)(10pow(-27)))Kg,Mass of electron=9.1(10pow(-31))Kg,Planck's constant=6.62(10pow(-34))J-sec,Velocity of light=3(10pow(8))m/s).
8.a)Write notes on Bragg's law.
b)Describe Bragg's X-Ray spectrometer method in the determination crystal structure.
c)Calculate the glancing angle of (1 1 1) plane of the cubic crystal having axial length 0.19nm corresponding to the second order diffraction maximum for the X-Rays of wavelength 0.058nm.
1.a)Explain the principle behind the functioning of an optical fibre.
b)Derive an expression for numerical aperture of an optical fibre.
c)Write three applications of optical fibres.
2.a)Distinguish between intrinsic and extrinsic semiconductors.
b)Derive an expression for density of holes in valence band of an intrinsic semiconductor.
3.a)What is bonding in solids?write the list of different types of bonding in solids.
b)Describe with suitable examples the information of ionic and covalent bonds in solids.
c)What is cohesive energy of a molecule?Explain.
4.a)What is Bloch theorem?Explain.
b)Write the conclusions given by Kronig-Penny model.
c)For an electron under motion n a periodic potential,plot the curve between the effective mass of the electron and wave number,and explain.
5.a)Describe any three process by which nano materials are fabricated.
b)Describe the important applications of nanotechnology.
6.a)Define magnetic moment.What is bohr magneton?Explain.
b)What are the characteristics of diamagnetic,Paramagnetic,ferromagnetic substances?Explain their behavior with the help of examples.
c)If a magnetic field of strength 300amp/metre produces a magnetization of 400A/m in ferromagnetic material,find the relative permeability of the material.
7.a)Explain the concept of dual nature of light.
b)Describe the experimental verification of matter waves using Davisson-Germer experiment.
c)Calculate the wavelength of matter wave associated with a neutron whose K.E is 1.5times the rest mass of electron.
(Given that mass of neutron=((1.676)(10pow(-27)))Kg,Mass of electron=9.1(10pow(-31))Kg,Planck's constant=6.62(10pow(-34))J-sec,Velocity of light=3(10pow(8))m/s).
8.a)Write notes on Bragg's law.
b)Describe Bragg's X-Ray spectrometer method in the determination crystal structure.
c)Calculate the glancing angle of (1 1 1) plane of the cubic crystal having axial length 0.19nm corresponding to the second order diffraction maximum for the X-Rays of wavelength 0.058nm.
Jawaharlal Nehru Technological University, Hyderabad B.Tech. 1st semester regular examination,INDUSTRIAL INSTRUMENTATION (INSTRUMENTATION & CONTROL ENGINEERING) Question paper
1. Describe in detail about absolute and relative length measurement situations with
examples. [16]
2. What are different types of electrical tachometers? Explain in detail. [16]
3. What is gyroscope? How gyroscopic principle are used to measure force and torque?
Explain with relevant diagrams. [16]
4. (a) What is momentum transfer gauge? Explain.
(b) What is liquid barometer? Explain with neat sketch. [8+8]
5. Write short notes on ultrasonic type flow meters and write their advantages and
limitations. [16]
6. Write short notes on strain gauge load cell method. [16]
7. Explain how an infrared radiation detector is scanned across an object. [16]
8. Explain STROBOSCOPE and STROBOSCOPIC METHODS for measurement of frequency of flash light. [16]
examples. [16]
2. What are different types of electrical tachometers? Explain in detail. [16]
3. What is gyroscope? How gyroscopic principle are used to measure force and torque?
Explain with relevant diagrams. [16]
4. (a) What is momentum transfer gauge? Explain.
(b) What is liquid barometer? Explain with neat sketch. [8+8]
5. Write short notes on ultrasonic type flow meters and write their advantages and
limitations. [16]
6. Write short notes on strain gauge load cell method. [16]
7. Explain how an infrared radiation detector is scanned across an object. [16]
8. Explain STROBOSCOPE and STROBOSCOPIC METHODS for measurement of frequency of flash light. [16]
Jawaharlal Nehru Technological University, Hyderabad B.Tech Computer Science and Engineering Basic Electrical Engineering 2008 B.tech Question paper
Code No: 07A1EC07
Set No. 1
I B.Tech Regular Examinations, May/Jun 2008
BASIC ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
( Common to Computer Science & Engineering, Information Technology and Computer Science & Systems Engineering)
Time: 3 hours Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
1. Explain the following terms:
(a) Charge
(b) Electric potential
(c) Potential difference
(d) Electric current
(e) Resistance
(f) Conductance
(g) Power
(h) Electrical energy.
[2+2+2+2+2+2+2+2]
2. Using Thevenin's theorem, find the current through the 7O resistor as shown in [16]
3.(a) State and explain faraday's laws of electromagnetic induction.
(b) Write short notes on Lenz's law.
(c) A coil of 1000 turns of wire uniformly wound on a non-magnetic ring of mean diameter 40 cm and cross-sectional area 20 sq.cm. Calculate
i. The inductance of the coil.
ii. The energy stored in the magnetic field when the coil is carrying a current of 15A.
iii. The emf induced in the coil if this current is completely interrupted in 0.01 second. [5+3+8]
4.(a) Explain the terms:
i. In-phase vectors
ii. Lead-Lag vectors.
(b)Calculate the current, power, power factor and voltage across the resistor of 8 O in series with a inductor of 20H and a capacitor of 14 µF excited by an AC supply of 110 V. [6+10]
5.(a) The full load voltage drop in a single phase transformer is 3% and 6% re-spectively due to resistance and leakage reactance. The full load ohmic loss is equal to the iron loss. Calculate:
i. The efficiency on full load at unity p.f
ii. The full load p.f at which the voltage drop is maximum iii. The load p.f at which the voltage drop is zero.
(b) A 200 / 400V, 50Hz 1 phase transformer on test gave following readings:
O.C (l.v): 200V, 0.7A, 70W, S.C (h.v): 15V, 10A, 80W. Find voltage regulation at 0.8 p.f lagging at full load. [8+8]
6. (a) What are the differences between a DC shunt motor and a DC series motor.
(b) Why a DC series motor cannot be started on no load? Explain.
(c) Explain the principle of torque production in a DC motor. [6+5+5]
7. (a) Give the constructional features of a synchronous motor.
(b) Explain the working of a synchronous motor. [8+8]
8. (a) Bring out the advantages and disadvantages of MI and MC instrument.
(b)Bring out the differences between various methods of producing controlling torque. [8+8]
Set No. 1
I B.Tech Regular Examinations, May/Jun 2008
BASIC ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
( Common to Computer Science & Engineering, Information Technology and Computer Science & Systems Engineering)
Time: 3 hours Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
1. Explain the following terms:
(a) Charge
(b) Electric potential
(c) Potential difference
(d) Electric current
(e) Resistance
(f) Conductance
(g) Power
(h) Electrical energy.
[2+2+2+2+2+2+2+2]
2. Using Thevenin's theorem, find the current through the 7O resistor as shown in [16]
3.(a) State and explain faraday's laws of electromagnetic induction.
(b) Write short notes on Lenz's law.
(c) A coil of 1000 turns of wire uniformly wound on a non-magnetic ring of mean diameter 40 cm and cross-sectional area 20 sq.cm. Calculate
i. The inductance of the coil.
ii. The energy stored in the magnetic field when the coil is carrying a current of 15A.
iii. The emf induced in the coil if this current is completely interrupted in 0.01 second. [5+3+8]
4.(a) Explain the terms:
i. In-phase vectors
ii. Lead-Lag vectors.
(b)Calculate the current, power, power factor and voltage across the resistor of 8 O in series with a inductor of 20H and a capacitor of 14 µF excited by an AC supply of 110 V. [6+10]
5.(a) The full load voltage drop in a single phase transformer is 3% and 6% re-spectively due to resistance and leakage reactance. The full load ohmic loss is equal to the iron loss. Calculate:
i. The efficiency on full load at unity p.f
ii. The full load p.f at which the voltage drop is maximum iii. The load p.f at which the voltage drop is zero.
(b) A 200 / 400V, 50Hz 1 phase transformer on test gave following readings:
O.C (l.v): 200V, 0.7A, 70W, S.C (h.v): 15V, 10A, 80W. Find voltage regulation at 0.8 p.f lagging at full load. [8+8]
6. (a) What are the differences between a DC shunt motor and a DC series motor.
(b) Why a DC series motor cannot be started on no load? Explain.
(c) Explain the principle of torque production in a DC motor. [6+5+5]
7. (a) Give the constructional features of a synchronous motor.
(b) Explain the working of a synchronous motor. [8+8]
8. (a) Bring out the advantages and disadvantages of MI and MC instrument.
(b)Bring out the differences between various methods of producing controlling torque. [8+8]
Jawaharlal Nehru Technological University, Hyderabad MCA-V Semester Supplementary Examinations July/August-2010 PROGRAMMING LANGUAGES Question paper
Code No: 56
Time: 3hours Max.Marks:60
Answer any Five questions
All questions carry equal Marks
1.a) Define programming language. Explain the criteria to call a programming language a good programming language.
b) Explain the significance of BNF grammars in expressing a programming language with suitable examples?
2.a) What are constants? Show how constants are handled in various languages with examples.
b) Give the advantages and disadvantages of the following features with relevant examples:
i) GOTO statements
ii) Labels
3.a) Discuss the various data types available with C++ language.
b) Explain the terms with suitable examples:
i) Type coercion
ii) Type equivalence
4.a) Differentiate between the terms scope and extent with relevant examples in C language.
b) Explain the different types of parameter passing mechanisms used in C++ language.
5.a) Differentiate between s data type and abstract data type. Give the abstract data type for a STACK data structure using ADA.
b) Define Exception handling. Show how ADA handles exception handling.
6.a) Show how a semaphore is used to handle concurrency with an example.
b) Explain the following:
i) Message passing
ii) Concurrent Pascal.
7.a) Explain how the recursive interpreter of LISP works.
b) Show the important features of PROLOG language with suitable examples.
8. Write short notes on the following:
a) Variable binding
b) Structured data types
c) Monitors
d) Logic programming
Time: 3hours Max.Marks:60
Answer any Five questions
All questions carry equal Marks
1.a) Define programming language. Explain the criteria to call a programming language a good programming language.
b) Explain the significance of BNF grammars in expressing a programming language with suitable examples?
2.a) What are constants? Show how constants are handled in various languages with examples.
b) Give the advantages and disadvantages of the following features with relevant examples:
i) GOTO statements
ii) Labels
3.a) Discuss the various data types available with C++ language.
b) Explain the terms with suitable examples:
i) Type coercion
ii) Type equivalence
4.a) Differentiate between the terms scope and extent with relevant examples in C language.
b) Explain the different types of parameter passing mechanisms used in C++ language.
5.a) Differentiate between s data type and abstract data type. Give the abstract data type for a STACK data structure using ADA.
b) Define Exception handling. Show how ADA handles exception handling.
6.a) Show how a semaphore is used to handle concurrency with an example.
b) Explain the following:
i) Message passing
ii) Concurrent Pascal.
7.a) Explain how the recursive interpreter of LISP works.
b) Show the important features of PROLOG language with suitable examples.
8. Write short notes on the following:
a) Variable binding
b) Structured data types
c) Monitors
d) Logic programming
Jawaharlal Nehru Technological University, Hyderabad MCA-V Semester Supplementary Examinations July 2010 ADVANCED JAVA FOR WEB TECHNOLOGIES Question paper
Code No: 53
Time: 3hours Max.Marks:60
Answer any Five questions
All questions carry equal Marks
1. a) Why is HTML used as front end language ?Explain
b) Write a program to create a home page of your own using HTML tags
2. a) Write a program to convert Fahrenheit to Celsius in java script?
b) Compare and contrast between HTML and DHTML
c) Differentiate between internal style sheet and external style sheet
3. a) Write a program which creates a window with yellow background color and message "HOW ARE YOU"
b) Differentiate between AWT controls and Swing controls
4. What is java bean? Explain the properties of java beans with an example
5. a) What is JSDK? Explain its purpose and uses
b) Write a servlet that displays the student information on submitting the roll number the details are stored in a student database
6. a) Explain Jsp application with MVC?
b) Describe about the Tomcat directory structure
7. a) Explain the concept of adding and deleting a cookie from the JSP page
b) Create an application in JSP to redirect the request to any other page
8. Describe how to access a database from a JSP page.
Time: 3hours Max.Marks:60
Answer any Five questions
All questions carry equal Marks
1. a) Why is HTML used as front end language ?Explain
b) Write a program to create a home page of your own using HTML tags
2. a) Write a program to convert Fahrenheit to Celsius in java script?
b) Compare and contrast between HTML and DHTML
c) Differentiate between internal style sheet and external style sheet
3. a) Write a program which creates a window with yellow background color and message "HOW ARE YOU"
b) Differentiate between AWT controls and Swing controls
4. What is java bean? Explain the properties of java beans with an example
5. a) What is JSDK? Explain its purpose and uses
b) Write a servlet that displays the student information on submitting the roll number the details are stored in a student database
6. a) Explain Jsp application with MVC?
b) Describe about the Tomcat directory structure
7. a) Explain the concept of adding and deleting a cookie from the JSP page
b) Create an application in JSP to redirect the request to any other page
8. Describe how to access a database from a JSP page.
Jawaharlal Nehru Technological University, Hyderabad MCA-V Semester Supplementary Examinations July /August 2010 MULTIMEDIA INFORMATION SYSTEMS Question paper
Code No: 57
Time: 3hours Max.Marks:60
Answer any Five questions
All questions carry equal Marks
1. a) Explain the properties of multimedia system?
b) Explain the basis sound, image and graphics concept?
2. Discuss about data compression in multimedia?
3. Explain the real time and resource management in multimedia OS?
4. a) What are the characteristics of multimedia DBMS ?
b) Explain SGML?
5. Explain the audio at the user interface of multimedia?
6. Explain the reference model for multimedia synchronization?
7. Discuss the object oriented approaches of multimedia abstractions?
8. Write short notes on:
a) Media consumption
b) Media preparation.
Time: 3hours Max.Marks:60
Answer any Five questions
All questions carry equal Marks
1. a) Explain the properties of multimedia system?
b) Explain the basis sound, image and graphics concept?
2. Discuss about data compression in multimedia?
3. Explain the real time and resource management in multimedia OS?
4. a) What are the characteristics of multimedia DBMS ?
b) Explain SGML?
5. Explain the audio at the user interface of multimedia?
6. Explain the reference model for multimedia synchronization?
7. Discuss the object oriented approaches of multimedia abstractions?
8. Write short notes on:
a) Media consumption
b) Media preparation.
Jawaharlal Nehru Technological University, Hyderabad MCA-V Semester Supplementary Examinations July /August 2010 VISUAL PROGRAMMING TECHNIQUES Question paper
Code No: 58
Time: 3hours Max.Marks:60
Answer any Five questions
All questions carry equal Marks
1. Explain in detail about creating workspace, adding code to application and adding controls in VC++.
2. Discuss how to create menus for application and to use pre existing dialog windows in VC++.
3. What is meant by graphics device interface? Discuss about adding active X controls to application.
4. Discuss how to create database application using ODBC. Give an example.
5. Compare the event driven and object oriented programming and also discuss about conditional statements and loops with suitable examples.
6. Discuss about controlling a program with menu bar and also discuss about creation of toolbar.
7. a) Discuss about DHTML applications.
b) What is meant by MDI? Write a sample MDI program?
8. Write short notes on the following
a) I I S applications
b) Built-in dialog boxes.
c) Crystal reports.
Time: 3hours Max.Marks:60
Answer any Five questions
All questions carry equal Marks
1. Explain in detail about creating workspace, adding code to application and adding controls in VC++.
2. Discuss how to create menus for application and to use pre existing dialog windows in VC++.
3. What is meant by graphics device interface? Discuss about adding active X controls to application.
4. Discuss how to create database application using ODBC. Give an example.
5. Compare the event driven and object oriented programming and also discuss about conditional statements and loops with suitable examples.
6. Discuss about controlling a program with menu bar and also discuss about creation of toolbar.
7. a) Discuss about DHTML applications.
b) What is meant by MDI? Write a sample MDI program?
8. Write short notes on the following
a) I I S applications
b) Built-in dialog boxes.
c) Crystal reports.
Jawaharlal Nehru Technological University, Hyderabad MCA-V Semester Supplementary Examinations July 2010 SIMULATION AND MODELING Question paper
Code No: 51
Time: 3hours Max.Marks:60
Answer any Five questions
All questions carry equal Marks
1. (a) What are the major segments used in corporate model? Explain each segment.
(b) What are different types of system study? Explain each.
2. (a) Give a brief account of techniques used for system simulation.
(b) Draw a comparison between cobweb model and distributed log model.
3. (a) Explain about analog computers and analog methods used in simulation.
(b) Write the important features of CSMP.
4. (a) Explain discrete probability function. How are its mean and standard deviation
computed?
(b) Give the correct value of A that makes the following equation for y a probability
density function.
y = 1/(x +A), 0=x=1=0 , elsewhere.
5.(a) How is the arrival pattern described if the inter-arrival times are distributed
exponentially?
(b) What is coefficient of variation? What is its significance in congestion?
6. (a) Explain the three general approaches to sequencing events.
(b) Mention the principal steps involved in a simulation algorithm.
7. (a) Explain any ten statements of GPSS with block diagrams.
(b) Write about the implementation activities of SIMSCRIPT and GPSS.
8. Parts are produced by a machine tool at the rate of one every five minutes. Each part is inspected for 4 ± 3 minutes and 10 % are rejected. Write a SIMSCRIPT program to simulate the system.
Time: 3hours Max.Marks:60
Answer any Five questions
All questions carry equal Marks
1. (a) What are the major segments used in corporate model? Explain each segment.
(b) What are different types of system study? Explain each.
2. (a) Give a brief account of techniques used for system simulation.
(b) Draw a comparison between cobweb model and distributed log model.
3. (a) Explain about analog computers and analog methods used in simulation.
(b) Write the important features of CSMP.
4. (a) Explain discrete probability function. How are its mean and standard deviation
computed?
(b) Give the correct value of A that makes the following equation for y a probability
density function.
y = 1/(x +A), 0=x=1=0 , elsewhere.
5.(a) How is the arrival pattern described if the inter-arrival times are distributed
exponentially?
(b) What is coefficient of variation? What is its significance in congestion?
6. (a) Explain the three general approaches to sequencing events.
(b) Mention the principal steps involved in a simulation algorithm.
7. (a) Explain any ten statements of GPSS with block diagrams.
(b) Write about the implementation activities of SIMSCRIPT and GPSS.
8. Parts are produced by a machine tool at the rate of one every five minutes. Each part is inspected for 4 ± 3 minutes and 10 % are rejected. Write a SIMSCRIPT program to simulate the system.
Jawaharlal Nehru Technological University, Hyderabad MCA-V Semester Supplementary Examinations July 2010 MULTIMEDIA APPLICATION DEVELOPMENT Question paper
Code No: 52
Time: 3hours Max.Marks:60
Answer any Five questions
All questions carry equal Marks
1.a) Explain about file formats.
b) Describe about multimedia Software tools.
2.a) Explain about analog video.
b) Explain about Lossless predictive coding.
3.a) Explain the different types of data types are used in ActionScript.
b) Explain the features of Action Script.
4. What is Exception? Explain how the Exceptions are handled in Action Script.
5. Write a program to create a scrolling text box with the scrollbar component.
6.a) Describe about Dictionary – Based Coding.
b) Explain about Embedded zero tree of wavelet coefficients.
7.a) Explain the different types of search for motion vectors.
b) Draw the block diagram for an MPEG-2 encoder and decoder for
i) SNR and Spatial hybrid Scalability
ii) SNR and temporal hybrid Scalability
8.a) Explain the Broadcast Schemes for Video-on-Demand.
b) Explain about Resource Reservation Protocol.
Time: 3hours Max.Marks:60
Answer any Five questions
All questions carry equal Marks
1.a) Explain about file formats.
b) Describe about multimedia Software tools.
2.a) Explain about analog video.
b) Explain about Lossless predictive coding.
3.a) Explain the different types of data types are used in ActionScript.
b) Explain the features of Action Script.
4. What is Exception? Explain how the Exceptions are handled in Action Script.
5. Write a program to create a scrolling text box with the scrollbar component.
6.a) Describe about Dictionary – Based Coding.
b) Explain about Embedded zero tree of wavelet coefficients.
7.a) Explain the different types of search for motion vectors.
b) Draw the block diagram for an MPEG-2 encoder and decoder for
i) SNR and Spatial hybrid Scalability
ii) SNR and temporal hybrid Scalability
8.a) Explain the Broadcast Schemes for Video-on-Demand.
b) Explain about Resource Reservation Protocol.
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